FDA removes pregnancy category C warning from certain MS medications

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The Food and Drug Administration has updated the labels for peginterferon beta-1a (Plegridy) and interferon beta-1a (Avonex) to include more information about usage of these medications during pregnancy and breastfeeding in women with multiple sclerosis (MS).

Wikimedia Commons/FitzColinGerald/ Creative Commons License

The FDA based the decision on data from more than 1,000 real-world pregnancies, including pregnancies from a large epidemiologic study and published studies over several decades, which found no connection between use of interferon-beta products during early pregnancy and an increased risk of major birth defects, according to the FDA.

As a result, the labels for both medications will no longer have the pregnancy category C designation; however, patients should continue to notify their health care provider if they are pregnant or plan to become pregnant.

The FDA decision to remove the warning follows a similar decision by the European Medicines Agency last year.

“Many women with MS are diagnosed during their childbearing years. With this important update for Plegridy and Avonex, healthcare providers have more data to inform appropriate treatment paths for patients who may be pregnant or planning for pregnancy,” said Bernd Kieseier, MD, MHBA, executive director and head of global MS at Worldwide Medical, Biogen, in a press release.

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The Food and Drug Administration has updated the labels for peginterferon beta-1a (Plegridy) and interferon beta-1a (Avonex) to include more information about usage of these medications during pregnancy and breastfeeding in women with multiple sclerosis (MS).

Wikimedia Commons/FitzColinGerald/ Creative Commons License

The FDA based the decision on data from more than 1,000 real-world pregnancies, including pregnancies from a large epidemiologic study and published studies over several decades, which found no connection between use of interferon-beta products during early pregnancy and an increased risk of major birth defects, according to the FDA.

As a result, the labels for both medications will no longer have the pregnancy category C designation; however, patients should continue to notify their health care provider if they are pregnant or plan to become pregnant.

The FDA decision to remove the warning follows a similar decision by the European Medicines Agency last year.

“Many women with MS are diagnosed during their childbearing years. With this important update for Plegridy and Avonex, healthcare providers have more data to inform appropriate treatment paths for patients who may be pregnant or planning for pregnancy,” said Bernd Kieseier, MD, MHBA, executive director and head of global MS at Worldwide Medical, Biogen, in a press release.

The Food and Drug Administration has updated the labels for peginterferon beta-1a (Plegridy) and interferon beta-1a (Avonex) to include more information about usage of these medications during pregnancy and breastfeeding in women with multiple sclerosis (MS).

Wikimedia Commons/FitzColinGerald/ Creative Commons License

The FDA based the decision on data from more than 1,000 real-world pregnancies, including pregnancies from a large epidemiologic study and published studies over several decades, which found no connection between use of interferon-beta products during early pregnancy and an increased risk of major birth defects, according to the FDA.

As a result, the labels for both medications will no longer have the pregnancy category C designation; however, patients should continue to notify their health care provider if they are pregnant or plan to become pregnant.

The FDA decision to remove the warning follows a similar decision by the European Medicines Agency last year.

“Many women with MS are diagnosed during their childbearing years. With this important update for Plegridy and Avonex, healthcare providers have more data to inform appropriate treatment paths for patients who may be pregnant or planning for pregnancy,” said Bernd Kieseier, MD, MHBA, executive director and head of global MS at Worldwide Medical, Biogen, in a press release.

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FDA approves recombinant treatment for hemophilia A or B with inhibitors

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The Food and Drug Administration has approved a new rabbit-derived recombinant analog of human coagulation factor VII (Sevenfact) for the treatment of hemophilia A or B, according to a release from the agency.

The treatment’s approval is for use in patients aged 12 years and older who’ve developed inhibitors (neutralizing antibodies). This factor VII (FVII) analog bypasses the FVIII and FIX reactions, which are no longer effective pathways for treatment in these patients because of the inhibitors they’ve developed.

According to the release, “the active ingredient of Sevenfact is a recombinant analog of human FVII, which is expressed in the mammary gland of genetically engineered rabbits and secreted into the rabbits’ milk. During purification and processing of the milk, FVII is converted into activated FVII.” The FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine has, after “comprehensive analysis of the scientific evidence,” determined that the process is safe for both the rabbits and handlers and that it is an effective means of producing the coagulation factor.

The approval is based on a clinical study that evaluated 27 patients with hemophilia A or B and included treatment for 465 mild to moderate events and 3 severe ones. The low (75 mcg/kg) or high (225 mcg/kg) dose was able to successfully treat 86% of the mild to moderate episodes, and all three of the severe ones were successfully treated with the high dose.

The most common side effects were headache, dizziness, infusion-site discomfort, infusion-related reaction, infusion-site hematoma, and fever. This product is contraindicated in patients with known allergies or hypersensitivities to rabbits or rabbit proteins. There is potential for increased risk of serious arterial or venous thrombotic events among patients with other risk factors for blood clots. More safety information can be found in the prescribing information, and more information about the approval can be found in the full release.

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The Food and Drug Administration has approved a new rabbit-derived recombinant analog of human coagulation factor VII (Sevenfact) for the treatment of hemophilia A or B, according to a release from the agency.

The treatment’s approval is for use in patients aged 12 years and older who’ve developed inhibitors (neutralizing antibodies). This factor VII (FVII) analog bypasses the FVIII and FIX reactions, which are no longer effective pathways for treatment in these patients because of the inhibitors they’ve developed.

According to the release, “the active ingredient of Sevenfact is a recombinant analog of human FVII, which is expressed in the mammary gland of genetically engineered rabbits and secreted into the rabbits’ milk. During purification and processing of the milk, FVII is converted into activated FVII.” The FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine has, after “comprehensive analysis of the scientific evidence,” determined that the process is safe for both the rabbits and handlers and that it is an effective means of producing the coagulation factor.

The approval is based on a clinical study that evaluated 27 patients with hemophilia A or B and included treatment for 465 mild to moderate events and 3 severe ones. The low (75 mcg/kg) or high (225 mcg/kg) dose was able to successfully treat 86% of the mild to moderate episodes, and all three of the severe ones were successfully treated with the high dose.

The most common side effects were headache, dizziness, infusion-site discomfort, infusion-related reaction, infusion-site hematoma, and fever. This product is contraindicated in patients with known allergies or hypersensitivities to rabbits or rabbit proteins. There is potential for increased risk of serious arterial or venous thrombotic events among patients with other risk factors for blood clots. More safety information can be found in the prescribing information, and more information about the approval can be found in the full release.

The Food and Drug Administration has approved a new rabbit-derived recombinant analog of human coagulation factor VII (Sevenfact) for the treatment of hemophilia A or B, according to a release from the agency.

The treatment’s approval is for use in patients aged 12 years and older who’ve developed inhibitors (neutralizing antibodies). This factor VII (FVII) analog bypasses the FVIII and FIX reactions, which are no longer effective pathways for treatment in these patients because of the inhibitors they’ve developed.

According to the release, “the active ingredient of Sevenfact is a recombinant analog of human FVII, which is expressed in the mammary gland of genetically engineered rabbits and secreted into the rabbits’ milk. During purification and processing of the milk, FVII is converted into activated FVII.” The FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine has, after “comprehensive analysis of the scientific evidence,” determined that the process is safe for both the rabbits and handlers and that it is an effective means of producing the coagulation factor.

The approval is based on a clinical study that evaluated 27 patients with hemophilia A or B and included treatment for 465 mild to moderate events and 3 severe ones. The low (75 mcg/kg) or high (225 mcg/kg) dose was able to successfully treat 86% of the mild to moderate episodes, and all three of the severe ones were successfully treated with the high dose.

The most common side effects were headache, dizziness, infusion-site discomfort, infusion-related reaction, infusion-site hematoma, and fever. This product is contraindicated in patients with known allergies or hypersensitivities to rabbits or rabbit proteins. There is potential for increased risk of serious arterial or venous thrombotic events among patients with other risk factors for blood clots. More safety information can be found in the prescribing information, and more information about the approval can be found in the full release.

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FDA calls for market removal of ranitidine

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A problem with probable human carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA) contamination in ranitidine, commonly known by the brand name Zantac, has led the Food and Drug Administration to call for manufacturers of the drug to remove all product, both branded and generic over-the-counter and prescription forms, from the market.

The NDMA contamination does not stem from a manufacturing concern, but rather the levels have been found to increase over time depending on how the ranitidine is stored.

In particular, the FDA found through product testing that the NDMA impurity developed over time when the ranitidine was stored above room temperature.

“The testing also showed that the older a ranitidine product is, or the longer the length of time since it was manufactured, the greater the level of NDMA,” FDA said in a statement announcing the call for product withdrawal.

The FDA has been investigating NDMA contamination since September 2019 when the agency first announced the contamination in ranitidine. Manufacturers have been withdrawing their products from the market since the first reports of contamination surfaced. Despite these recalls, there were still ranitidine products on the market, according to an FDA spokesperson, necessitating the further action taken by the agency.

In addition to products being removed from the market, FDA is asking consumers to discard any ranitidine products they may have.

“There are still questions about how the impurity is formed in ranitidine over time during storage,” Janet Woodcock, MD, director of the FDA Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, said during an April 1 conference call with reporters announcing the withdrawal request. “For example, what impact does the drug packaging have on the development or the specific formulation have on the development of NDMA.”

Dr. Janet Woodcock

She said the issue may be fixable over time, and the agency is open to reformulations that demonstrate that ranitidine is stable over time and under various storage conditions.

Dr. Woodcock stressed that the products at the point of manufacture do not have unacceptable levels of NDMA.

“This is a market withdrawal, this is not a recall because technically the products are okay. They met all their specs,” she said. “It is only when they are subjected generally to heat stress do they manifest higher levels” of NDMA.

“Clearly, we can’t have products on the market that if they are stored under conditions consumers might store them under that they would become unacceptable.”

Dr. Woodcock said FDA is not withdrawing approvals for the products, but manufacturers would need to show the product remains stable under normal storage conditions.

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A problem with probable human carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA) contamination in ranitidine, commonly known by the brand name Zantac, has led the Food and Drug Administration to call for manufacturers of the drug to remove all product, both branded and generic over-the-counter and prescription forms, from the market.

The NDMA contamination does not stem from a manufacturing concern, but rather the levels have been found to increase over time depending on how the ranitidine is stored.

In particular, the FDA found through product testing that the NDMA impurity developed over time when the ranitidine was stored above room temperature.

“The testing also showed that the older a ranitidine product is, or the longer the length of time since it was manufactured, the greater the level of NDMA,” FDA said in a statement announcing the call for product withdrawal.

The FDA has been investigating NDMA contamination since September 2019 when the agency first announced the contamination in ranitidine. Manufacturers have been withdrawing their products from the market since the first reports of contamination surfaced. Despite these recalls, there were still ranitidine products on the market, according to an FDA spokesperson, necessitating the further action taken by the agency.

In addition to products being removed from the market, FDA is asking consumers to discard any ranitidine products they may have.

“There are still questions about how the impurity is formed in ranitidine over time during storage,” Janet Woodcock, MD, director of the FDA Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, said during an April 1 conference call with reporters announcing the withdrawal request. “For example, what impact does the drug packaging have on the development or the specific formulation have on the development of NDMA.”

Dr. Janet Woodcock

She said the issue may be fixable over time, and the agency is open to reformulations that demonstrate that ranitidine is stable over time and under various storage conditions.

Dr. Woodcock stressed that the products at the point of manufacture do not have unacceptable levels of NDMA.

“This is a market withdrawal, this is not a recall because technically the products are okay. They met all their specs,” she said. “It is only when they are subjected generally to heat stress do they manifest higher levels” of NDMA.

“Clearly, we can’t have products on the market that if they are stored under conditions consumers might store them under that they would become unacceptable.”

Dr. Woodcock said FDA is not withdrawing approvals for the products, but manufacturers would need to show the product remains stable under normal storage conditions.

 

A problem with probable human carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA) contamination in ranitidine, commonly known by the brand name Zantac, has led the Food and Drug Administration to call for manufacturers of the drug to remove all product, both branded and generic over-the-counter and prescription forms, from the market.

The NDMA contamination does not stem from a manufacturing concern, but rather the levels have been found to increase over time depending on how the ranitidine is stored.

In particular, the FDA found through product testing that the NDMA impurity developed over time when the ranitidine was stored above room temperature.

“The testing also showed that the older a ranitidine product is, or the longer the length of time since it was manufactured, the greater the level of NDMA,” FDA said in a statement announcing the call for product withdrawal.

The FDA has been investigating NDMA contamination since September 2019 when the agency first announced the contamination in ranitidine. Manufacturers have been withdrawing their products from the market since the first reports of contamination surfaced. Despite these recalls, there were still ranitidine products on the market, according to an FDA spokesperson, necessitating the further action taken by the agency.

In addition to products being removed from the market, FDA is asking consumers to discard any ranitidine products they may have.

“There are still questions about how the impurity is formed in ranitidine over time during storage,” Janet Woodcock, MD, director of the FDA Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, said during an April 1 conference call with reporters announcing the withdrawal request. “For example, what impact does the drug packaging have on the development or the specific formulation have on the development of NDMA.”

Dr. Janet Woodcock

She said the issue may be fixable over time, and the agency is open to reformulations that demonstrate that ranitidine is stable over time and under various storage conditions.

Dr. Woodcock stressed that the products at the point of manufacture do not have unacceptable levels of NDMA.

“This is a market withdrawal, this is not a recall because technically the products are okay. They met all their specs,” she said. “It is only when they are subjected generally to heat stress do they manifest higher levels” of NDMA.

“Clearly, we can’t have products on the market that if they are stored under conditions consumers might store them under that they would become unacceptable.”

Dr. Woodcock said FDA is not withdrawing approvals for the products, but manufacturers would need to show the product remains stable under normal storage conditions.

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FDA OKs durvalumab combo for extensive-stage SCLC

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The US Food and Drug Administration has approved the immunotherapy durvalumab (Imfinzi, AstraZeneca) in combination with etoposide and either carboplatin or cisplatin as first-line treatment of patients with extensive-stage small cell lung cancer (ES-SCLC).

Durvalumab plus chemotherapy “can be considered a new standard in ES-SCLC,” said Myung-Ju Ahn, MD, Sungkyunkwan University, Seoul, South Korea, last year at the European Society of Medical Oncology (ESMO) annual meeting, where he discussed results from the phase 3 trial known as CASPIAN.

The new approval is based on efficacy and safety data from that trial, conducted in patients with previously untreated ES-SCLC. In the experimental group (n = 268), durvalumab plus etoposide and a platinum agent (EP) was followed by maintenance durvalumab, and in the control group (n = 269) patients received the EP regimen alone.

Median overall survival (OS) was 13 months in the durvalumab plus chemotherapy group compared with 10.3 months in the chemotherapy alone group (hazard ratio 0.73; 95% confidence interval, 0.59-0.91; P = .0047).

Reporting these results, trial investigator Luis Paz-Ares, MD, Hospital Universitario 12 de Octubre, Madrid, put the new survival benefit in the context of standard treatments at the ESMO meeting last year.

“Initial response rates to etoposide plus a platinum are high, but responses are not durable and patients treated with EP typically relapse within 6 months of starting treatment with a median OS of approximately 10 months,” he said.

In addition to the primary endpoint of OS, additional efficacy outcome measures were investigator-assessed progression-free survival (PFS) and objective response rate (ORR).

Median PFS was not statistically significant with immunotherapy; it was 5.1 months (95% CI, 4.7-6.2) in the durvalumab plus chemotherapy group and 5.4 months (95% CI, 4.8-6.2) in the chemotherapy alone group (HR, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.65-0.94).

The investigator-assessed ORR was 68% in the durvalumab plus chemotherapy group and 58% in the chemotherapy alone group.

The most common adverse reactions (≥ 20%) in patients with ES-SCLC were nausea, fatigue/asthenia, and alopecia, according to the FDA.

At ESMO, Paz-Ares reported that rates of serious adverse events (AEs) were comparable at 30.9% and 36.1% for the durvalumab plus EP group vs. EP alone, respectively; rates of AEs leading to discontinuation were identical in both groups at 9.4%. Unsurprisingly, immune-mediated AEs were higher at 19.6% in the durvalumab combination group vs. 2.6% in the EP alone group.

In this setting, durvalumab is administered prior to chemotherapy on the same day. The recommended durvalumab dose (when administered with etoposide and carboplatin or cisplatin) is 1,500 mg every 3 weeks prior to chemotherapy and then every 4 weeks as a single-agent maintenance therapy.

Durvalumab is already approved for metastatic non–small cell lung cancer in patients whose tumors have only spread in the chest, and is also approved for use in urothelial cancer.

This article first appeared on Medscape.com.

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The US Food and Drug Administration has approved the immunotherapy durvalumab (Imfinzi, AstraZeneca) in combination with etoposide and either carboplatin or cisplatin as first-line treatment of patients with extensive-stage small cell lung cancer (ES-SCLC).

Durvalumab plus chemotherapy “can be considered a new standard in ES-SCLC,” said Myung-Ju Ahn, MD, Sungkyunkwan University, Seoul, South Korea, last year at the European Society of Medical Oncology (ESMO) annual meeting, where he discussed results from the phase 3 trial known as CASPIAN.

The new approval is based on efficacy and safety data from that trial, conducted in patients with previously untreated ES-SCLC. In the experimental group (n = 268), durvalumab plus etoposide and a platinum agent (EP) was followed by maintenance durvalumab, and in the control group (n = 269) patients received the EP regimen alone.

Median overall survival (OS) was 13 months in the durvalumab plus chemotherapy group compared with 10.3 months in the chemotherapy alone group (hazard ratio 0.73; 95% confidence interval, 0.59-0.91; P = .0047).

Reporting these results, trial investigator Luis Paz-Ares, MD, Hospital Universitario 12 de Octubre, Madrid, put the new survival benefit in the context of standard treatments at the ESMO meeting last year.

“Initial response rates to etoposide plus a platinum are high, but responses are not durable and patients treated with EP typically relapse within 6 months of starting treatment with a median OS of approximately 10 months,” he said.

In addition to the primary endpoint of OS, additional efficacy outcome measures were investigator-assessed progression-free survival (PFS) and objective response rate (ORR).

Median PFS was not statistically significant with immunotherapy; it was 5.1 months (95% CI, 4.7-6.2) in the durvalumab plus chemotherapy group and 5.4 months (95% CI, 4.8-6.2) in the chemotherapy alone group (HR, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.65-0.94).

The investigator-assessed ORR was 68% in the durvalumab plus chemotherapy group and 58% in the chemotherapy alone group.

The most common adverse reactions (≥ 20%) in patients with ES-SCLC were nausea, fatigue/asthenia, and alopecia, according to the FDA.

At ESMO, Paz-Ares reported that rates of serious adverse events (AEs) were comparable at 30.9% and 36.1% for the durvalumab plus EP group vs. EP alone, respectively; rates of AEs leading to discontinuation were identical in both groups at 9.4%. Unsurprisingly, immune-mediated AEs were higher at 19.6% in the durvalumab combination group vs. 2.6% in the EP alone group.

In this setting, durvalumab is administered prior to chemotherapy on the same day. The recommended durvalumab dose (when administered with etoposide and carboplatin or cisplatin) is 1,500 mg every 3 weeks prior to chemotherapy and then every 4 weeks as a single-agent maintenance therapy.

Durvalumab is already approved for metastatic non–small cell lung cancer in patients whose tumors have only spread in the chest, and is also approved for use in urothelial cancer.

This article first appeared on Medscape.com.

The US Food and Drug Administration has approved the immunotherapy durvalumab (Imfinzi, AstraZeneca) in combination with etoposide and either carboplatin or cisplatin as first-line treatment of patients with extensive-stage small cell lung cancer (ES-SCLC).

Durvalumab plus chemotherapy “can be considered a new standard in ES-SCLC,” said Myung-Ju Ahn, MD, Sungkyunkwan University, Seoul, South Korea, last year at the European Society of Medical Oncology (ESMO) annual meeting, where he discussed results from the phase 3 trial known as CASPIAN.

The new approval is based on efficacy and safety data from that trial, conducted in patients with previously untreated ES-SCLC. In the experimental group (n = 268), durvalumab plus etoposide and a platinum agent (EP) was followed by maintenance durvalumab, and in the control group (n = 269) patients received the EP regimen alone.

Median overall survival (OS) was 13 months in the durvalumab plus chemotherapy group compared with 10.3 months in the chemotherapy alone group (hazard ratio 0.73; 95% confidence interval, 0.59-0.91; P = .0047).

Reporting these results, trial investigator Luis Paz-Ares, MD, Hospital Universitario 12 de Octubre, Madrid, put the new survival benefit in the context of standard treatments at the ESMO meeting last year.

“Initial response rates to etoposide plus a platinum are high, but responses are not durable and patients treated with EP typically relapse within 6 months of starting treatment with a median OS of approximately 10 months,” he said.

In addition to the primary endpoint of OS, additional efficacy outcome measures were investigator-assessed progression-free survival (PFS) and objective response rate (ORR).

Median PFS was not statistically significant with immunotherapy; it was 5.1 months (95% CI, 4.7-6.2) in the durvalumab plus chemotherapy group and 5.4 months (95% CI, 4.8-6.2) in the chemotherapy alone group (HR, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.65-0.94).

The investigator-assessed ORR was 68% in the durvalumab plus chemotherapy group and 58% in the chemotherapy alone group.

The most common adverse reactions (≥ 20%) in patients with ES-SCLC were nausea, fatigue/asthenia, and alopecia, according to the FDA.

At ESMO, Paz-Ares reported that rates of serious adverse events (AEs) were comparable at 30.9% and 36.1% for the durvalumab plus EP group vs. EP alone, respectively; rates of AEs leading to discontinuation were identical in both groups at 9.4%. Unsurprisingly, immune-mediated AEs were higher at 19.6% in the durvalumab combination group vs. 2.6% in the EP alone group.

In this setting, durvalumab is administered prior to chemotherapy on the same day. The recommended durvalumab dose (when administered with etoposide and carboplatin or cisplatin) is 1,500 mg every 3 weeks prior to chemotherapy and then every 4 weeks as a single-agent maintenance therapy.

Durvalumab is already approved for metastatic non–small cell lung cancer in patients whose tumors have only spread in the chest, and is also approved for use in urothelial cancer.

This article first appeared on Medscape.com.

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Dapagliflozin trial in CKD halted because of high efficacy

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AstraZeneca has announced that the phase 3 DAPA-CKD trial for dapagliflozin (Farxiga) in patients with chronic kidney disease has been halted early because of overwhelming efficacy of the drug, at the recommendation of an independent data monitoring committee.

DAPA-CKD is an international, multicenter, randomized, double-blinded trial in 4,245 patients with stage 2-4 chronic kidney disease. Patients received either 10 mg of the dapagliflozin once-daily or a placebo. The primary composite endpoint is worsening of renal function, defined as a composite of an estimated glomerular filtration rate decline of at least 50%, onset of end-stage kidney disease, and death from cardiovascular or renal cause.

The decision to stop the trial came after a routine assessment of efficacy and safety that showed dapagliflozin’s benefits significantly earlier than expected. AstraZeneca will initiate closure of the study, and results will be published and submitted for presentation at a forthcoming medical meeting.



Dapagliflozin is a sodium-glucose transporter 2 inhibitor currently indicated for the treatment type 2 diabetes patients with inadequately controlled type 2 diabetes and for reduction of the risk of hospitalization for heart failure. In August 2019, the drug was granted Fast Track status by the Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of chronic kidney disease. In January 2020, the agency also granted Fast Track status for the reduction of risk of cardiovascular death or worsening of heart failure in adult patients, regardless of diabetes status, with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.

“Chronic kidney disease patients have limited treatment options, particularly those without type-2 diabetes. We are very pleased the data monitoring committee concluded that patients experienced overwhelming benefit. Farxiga has the potential to change the management of chronic kidney disease for patients around the world,” Mene Pangalos, executive vice president of BioPharmaceuticals R&D, said in the press release.

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AstraZeneca has announced that the phase 3 DAPA-CKD trial for dapagliflozin (Farxiga) in patients with chronic kidney disease has been halted early because of overwhelming efficacy of the drug, at the recommendation of an independent data monitoring committee.

DAPA-CKD is an international, multicenter, randomized, double-blinded trial in 4,245 patients with stage 2-4 chronic kidney disease. Patients received either 10 mg of the dapagliflozin once-daily or a placebo. The primary composite endpoint is worsening of renal function, defined as a composite of an estimated glomerular filtration rate decline of at least 50%, onset of end-stage kidney disease, and death from cardiovascular or renal cause.

The decision to stop the trial came after a routine assessment of efficacy and safety that showed dapagliflozin’s benefits significantly earlier than expected. AstraZeneca will initiate closure of the study, and results will be published and submitted for presentation at a forthcoming medical meeting.



Dapagliflozin is a sodium-glucose transporter 2 inhibitor currently indicated for the treatment type 2 diabetes patients with inadequately controlled type 2 diabetes and for reduction of the risk of hospitalization for heart failure. In August 2019, the drug was granted Fast Track status by the Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of chronic kidney disease. In January 2020, the agency also granted Fast Track status for the reduction of risk of cardiovascular death or worsening of heart failure in adult patients, regardless of diabetes status, with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.

“Chronic kidney disease patients have limited treatment options, particularly those without type-2 diabetes. We are very pleased the data monitoring committee concluded that patients experienced overwhelming benefit. Farxiga has the potential to change the management of chronic kidney disease for patients around the world,” Mene Pangalos, executive vice president of BioPharmaceuticals R&D, said in the press release.

AstraZeneca has announced that the phase 3 DAPA-CKD trial for dapagliflozin (Farxiga) in patients with chronic kidney disease has been halted early because of overwhelming efficacy of the drug, at the recommendation of an independent data monitoring committee.

DAPA-CKD is an international, multicenter, randomized, double-blinded trial in 4,245 patients with stage 2-4 chronic kidney disease. Patients received either 10 mg of the dapagliflozin once-daily or a placebo. The primary composite endpoint is worsening of renal function, defined as a composite of an estimated glomerular filtration rate decline of at least 50%, onset of end-stage kidney disease, and death from cardiovascular or renal cause.

The decision to stop the trial came after a routine assessment of efficacy and safety that showed dapagliflozin’s benefits significantly earlier than expected. AstraZeneca will initiate closure of the study, and results will be published and submitted for presentation at a forthcoming medical meeting.



Dapagliflozin is a sodium-glucose transporter 2 inhibitor currently indicated for the treatment type 2 diabetes patients with inadequately controlled type 2 diabetes and for reduction of the risk of hospitalization for heart failure. In August 2019, the drug was granted Fast Track status by the Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of chronic kidney disease. In January 2020, the agency also granted Fast Track status for the reduction of risk of cardiovascular death or worsening of heart failure in adult patients, regardless of diabetes status, with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.

“Chronic kidney disease patients have limited treatment options, particularly those without type-2 diabetes. We are very pleased the data monitoring committee concluded that patients experienced overwhelming benefit. Farxiga has the potential to change the management of chronic kidney disease for patients around the world,” Mene Pangalos, executive vice president of BioPharmaceuticals R&D, said in the press release.

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FDA okays emergency use of convalescent plasma for seriously ill COVID-19 patients

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As the proportion of patients infected with COVID-19 continues to rise in the United States, the Food and Drug Administration is facilitating access to COVID-19 convalescent plasma for use in patients with serious or immediately life-threatening COVID-19 infections.

Peter J. Pitts

While clinical trials are underway to evaluate the safety and efficacy of administering convalescent plasma to patients with COVID-19, the FDA is granting clinicians permission for use of investigational convalescent plasma under single-patient emergency Investigational New Drug Applications (INDs), since no known cure exists and a vaccine is more than 1 year away from becoming available.

This allows the use of an investigational drug for the treatment of an individual patient by a licensed physician upon FDA authorization. This does not include the use of COVID-19 convalescent plasma for the prevention of infection, according to a statement issued by the agency on March 24.

“It is possible that convalescent plasma that contains antibodies to SARS-CoV-2 (the virus that causes COVID-19) might be effective against the infection,” the FDA statement reads. “Use of convalescent plasma has been studied in outbreaks of other respiratory infections, including the 2009-2010 H1N1 influenza virus pandemic, 2003 SARS-CoV-1 epidemic, and the 2012 MERS-CoV epidemic. Although promising, convalescent plasma has not been shown to be effective in every disease studied.”

“I think the FDA got caught initially a little flat-footed when it came to the development of COVID-19 tests, but they’re quickly catching up,” Peter J. Pitts, who was the FDA’s associate commissioner from 2002 to 2004, said in an interview. “I think that the attitude now is, ‘If it’s safe, let’s create a pathway to see how these things work in the real world.’ I think that’s going to be as true for treatments to lessen the symptoms and shorten the duration of the disease, as well as convalescent plasma as a potential alternative to a yet-to-be-developed vaccine.”

At the University of Washington School of Medicine, Seattle, Terry B. Gernsheimer, MD, and her colleagues are recruiting recovered COVID-19 patients to donate plasma for seriously ill patients affected with the virus. “The thought of using convalescent plasma makes total sense, because it’s immediately available, and it’s something that we can try to give people,” said Dr. Gernsheimer, a hematologist who is professor of medicine at the medical school. “It’s been used in China, and reports should be coming out shortly about their experience with this.”

Dr. Terry B. Gernsheimer

In a case series that appeared in JAMA on March 27 (doi: 10.1001/jama.2020.4783), Chinese researchers led by Chenguang Shen, PhD, reported findings from five critically ill COVID-19 patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome who received a transfusion with convalescent plasma at Shenzhen Third People’s Hospital 10 and 22 days after hospital admission. The patients ranged in age from 36 to 73 years, three were men, and all were receiving mechanical ventilation at the time of treatment.

Dr. Shen and colleagues reported that viral loads decreased and became negative within 12 days following the transfusion. Three of the patients were discharged from the hospital after a length of stay that ranged from 51 to 55 days, and two remain in stable condition at 37 days after the transfusion. The researchers pointed out that all patients received antiviral agents, including interferon and lopinavir/ritonavir, during and following convalescent plasma treatment, “which also may have contributed to the viral clearance observed.”

Under the FDA policy on emergency IND use, COVID-19 convalescent plasma must only be collected from recovered individuals if they are eligible to donate blood, required testing must be performed, and the donation must be found suitable.

Potential donors “are going to be screened the way all blood donors are screened,” Dr. Gernsheimer said. “It’s not going to be any less safe than any unit of plasma that’s on the shelf that comes from our volunteer donors. There are always transfusion reactions that we have to worry about, [and] there are potentially unknown pathogens that we don’t yet know about that we are not yet testing for. It’s the regular risk we see with any unit of plasma.”

She added that COVID-19 survivors appear to start increasing their titer of the antibody around day 28. “We’ll be looking for recovered individuals who have had a documented infection, and whose symptoms started about 28 days before we collect,” she said.

The FDA advises clinicians to address several considerations for donor eligibility, including prior diagnosis of COVID-19 documented by a laboratory test; complete resolution of symptoms at least 14 days prior to donation; female donors negative for HLA antibodies or male donors, and negative results for COVID-19 either from one or more nasopharyngeal swab specimens or by a molecular diagnostic test from blood. [A partial list of available tests can be accessed on the FDA website.] The agency also advises that donors have defined SARS-CoV-2–neutralizing antibody titers, if testing can be conducted (optimally greater than 1:320).

Patients eligible to receive COVID-19 convalescent plasma must have a severe or immediately life-threatening infection with laboratory-confirmed COVID-19. The agency defines severe disease as dyspnea, respiratory frequency of 30 per minute or greater, blood oxygen saturation of 93% or less, partial pressure of arterial oxygen to fraction of inspired oxygen ratio of less than 300, and/or lung infiltrates of greater than 50% within 24-48 hours. Life-threatening disease is defined as respiratory failure, septic shock, and/or multiple organ dysfunction or failure. Patients must provide informed consent.

The potential risks of receiving COVID-19 convalescent plasma remain unknown, according to Dr. Gernsheimer. “What some people have thought about is, could there be such an inflammatory response with the virus that we would initially see these patients get worse?” she said. “My understanding is that has not occurred in China yet, but we don’t have all those data. But we always worry if we have something that’s going to cause inflammation around an infection, for example, that could initially make it more difficult to breathe if it’s a lung infection. So far, my understanding is that has not been seen.”

For COVID-19 convalescent plasma authorization requests that require a response within 4-8 hours, requesting clinicians may complete form 3296 and submit it by email to CBER_eIND_Covid-19@FDA.HHS.gov.

For COVID-19 convalescent plasma authorization requests that require a response in less than 4 hours, or if the clinician is unable to complete and submit form 3926 because of extenuating circumstances, verbal authorization can be sought by calling the FDA’s Office of Emergency Operations at 1-866-300-4374.

The FDA is working with the National Institutes of Health, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other government partners to develop protocols for use by multiple investigators in order to coordinate the collection and use of COVID-19 convalescent plasma.

“It’s crucial that data be captured for every patient so that we really understand what safety and effectiveness looks like on as close to a real-world level as we can, as quickly as we can,” said Mr. Pitts, who is president and cofounder of the Center for Medicine in the Public Interest, and who also does consulting work for the FDA. “I understand that health care professionals are overworked and overburdened right now. I applaud them for their heroic work. But that doesn’t mean that we can shirk off collecting the data. When I was at the FDA, I helped address the SARS epidemic. The agency attitude at that point was, ‘Let’s get things that just might work through the process, as long as the cure isn’t going to be worse than the disease.’ I think that’s the attitude that’s leading the charge today.”

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As the proportion of patients infected with COVID-19 continues to rise in the United States, the Food and Drug Administration is facilitating access to COVID-19 convalescent plasma for use in patients with serious or immediately life-threatening COVID-19 infections.

Peter J. Pitts

While clinical trials are underway to evaluate the safety and efficacy of administering convalescent plasma to patients with COVID-19, the FDA is granting clinicians permission for use of investigational convalescent plasma under single-patient emergency Investigational New Drug Applications (INDs), since no known cure exists and a vaccine is more than 1 year away from becoming available.

This allows the use of an investigational drug for the treatment of an individual patient by a licensed physician upon FDA authorization. This does not include the use of COVID-19 convalescent plasma for the prevention of infection, according to a statement issued by the agency on March 24.

“It is possible that convalescent plasma that contains antibodies to SARS-CoV-2 (the virus that causes COVID-19) might be effective against the infection,” the FDA statement reads. “Use of convalescent plasma has been studied in outbreaks of other respiratory infections, including the 2009-2010 H1N1 influenza virus pandemic, 2003 SARS-CoV-1 epidemic, and the 2012 MERS-CoV epidemic. Although promising, convalescent plasma has not been shown to be effective in every disease studied.”

“I think the FDA got caught initially a little flat-footed when it came to the development of COVID-19 tests, but they’re quickly catching up,” Peter J. Pitts, who was the FDA’s associate commissioner from 2002 to 2004, said in an interview. “I think that the attitude now is, ‘If it’s safe, let’s create a pathway to see how these things work in the real world.’ I think that’s going to be as true for treatments to lessen the symptoms and shorten the duration of the disease, as well as convalescent plasma as a potential alternative to a yet-to-be-developed vaccine.”

At the University of Washington School of Medicine, Seattle, Terry B. Gernsheimer, MD, and her colleagues are recruiting recovered COVID-19 patients to donate plasma for seriously ill patients affected with the virus. “The thought of using convalescent plasma makes total sense, because it’s immediately available, and it’s something that we can try to give people,” said Dr. Gernsheimer, a hematologist who is professor of medicine at the medical school. “It’s been used in China, and reports should be coming out shortly about their experience with this.”

Dr. Terry B. Gernsheimer

In a case series that appeared in JAMA on March 27 (doi: 10.1001/jama.2020.4783), Chinese researchers led by Chenguang Shen, PhD, reported findings from five critically ill COVID-19 patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome who received a transfusion with convalescent plasma at Shenzhen Third People’s Hospital 10 and 22 days after hospital admission. The patients ranged in age from 36 to 73 years, three were men, and all were receiving mechanical ventilation at the time of treatment.

Dr. Shen and colleagues reported that viral loads decreased and became negative within 12 days following the transfusion. Three of the patients were discharged from the hospital after a length of stay that ranged from 51 to 55 days, and two remain in stable condition at 37 days after the transfusion. The researchers pointed out that all patients received antiviral agents, including interferon and lopinavir/ritonavir, during and following convalescent plasma treatment, “which also may have contributed to the viral clearance observed.”

Under the FDA policy on emergency IND use, COVID-19 convalescent plasma must only be collected from recovered individuals if they are eligible to donate blood, required testing must be performed, and the donation must be found suitable.

Potential donors “are going to be screened the way all blood donors are screened,” Dr. Gernsheimer said. “It’s not going to be any less safe than any unit of plasma that’s on the shelf that comes from our volunteer donors. There are always transfusion reactions that we have to worry about, [and] there are potentially unknown pathogens that we don’t yet know about that we are not yet testing for. It’s the regular risk we see with any unit of plasma.”

She added that COVID-19 survivors appear to start increasing their titer of the antibody around day 28. “We’ll be looking for recovered individuals who have had a documented infection, and whose symptoms started about 28 days before we collect,” she said.

The FDA advises clinicians to address several considerations for donor eligibility, including prior diagnosis of COVID-19 documented by a laboratory test; complete resolution of symptoms at least 14 days prior to donation; female donors negative for HLA antibodies or male donors, and negative results for COVID-19 either from one or more nasopharyngeal swab specimens or by a molecular diagnostic test from blood. [A partial list of available tests can be accessed on the FDA website.] The agency also advises that donors have defined SARS-CoV-2–neutralizing antibody titers, if testing can be conducted (optimally greater than 1:320).

Patients eligible to receive COVID-19 convalescent plasma must have a severe or immediately life-threatening infection with laboratory-confirmed COVID-19. The agency defines severe disease as dyspnea, respiratory frequency of 30 per minute or greater, blood oxygen saturation of 93% or less, partial pressure of arterial oxygen to fraction of inspired oxygen ratio of less than 300, and/or lung infiltrates of greater than 50% within 24-48 hours. Life-threatening disease is defined as respiratory failure, septic shock, and/or multiple organ dysfunction or failure. Patients must provide informed consent.

The potential risks of receiving COVID-19 convalescent plasma remain unknown, according to Dr. Gernsheimer. “What some people have thought about is, could there be such an inflammatory response with the virus that we would initially see these patients get worse?” she said. “My understanding is that has not occurred in China yet, but we don’t have all those data. But we always worry if we have something that’s going to cause inflammation around an infection, for example, that could initially make it more difficult to breathe if it’s a lung infection. So far, my understanding is that has not been seen.”

For COVID-19 convalescent plasma authorization requests that require a response within 4-8 hours, requesting clinicians may complete form 3296 and submit it by email to CBER_eIND_Covid-19@FDA.HHS.gov.

For COVID-19 convalescent plasma authorization requests that require a response in less than 4 hours, or if the clinician is unable to complete and submit form 3926 because of extenuating circumstances, verbal authorization can be sought by calling the FDA’s Office of Emergency Operations at 1-866-300-4374.

The FDA is working with the National Institutes of Health, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other government partners to develop protocols for use by multiple investigators in order to coordinate the collection and use of COVID-19 convalescent plasma.

“It’s crucial that data be captured for every patient so that we really understand what safety and effectiveness looks like on as close to a real-world level as we can, as quickly as we can,” said Mr. Pitts, who is president and cofounder of the Center for Medicine in the Public Interest, and who also does consulting work for the FDA. “I understand that health care professionals are overworked and overburdened right now. I applaud them for their heroic work. But that doesn’t mean that we can shirk off collecting the data. When I was at the FDA, I helped address the SARS epidemic. The agency attitude at that point was, ‘Let’s get things that just might work through the process, as long as the cure isn’t going to be worse than the disease.’ I think that’s the attitude that’s leading the charge today.”

 

As the proportion of patients infected with COVID-19 continues to rise in the United States, the Food and Drug Administration is facilitating access to COVID-19 convalescent plasma for use in patients with serious or immediately life-threatening COVID-19 infections.

Peter J. Pitts

While clinical trials are underway to evaluate the safety and efficacy of administering convalescent plasma to patients with COVID-19, the FDA is granting clinicians permission for use of investigational convalescent plasma under single-patient emergency Investigational New Drug Applications (INDs), since no known cure exists and a vaccine is more than 1 year away from becoming available.

This allows the use of an investigational drug for the treatment of an individual patient by a licensed physician upon FDA authorization. This does not include the use of COVID-19 convalescent plasma for the prevention of infection, according to a statement issued by the agency on March 24.

“It is possible that convalescent plasma that contains antibodies to SARS-CoV-2 (the virus that causes COVID-19) might be effective against the infection,” the FDA statement reads. “Use of convalescent plasma has been studied in outbreaks of other respiratory infections, including the 2009-2010 H1N1 influenza virus pandemic, 2003 SARS-CoV-1 epidemic, and the 2012 MERS-CoV epidemic. Although promising, convalescent plasma has not been shown to be effective in every disease studied.”

“I think the FDA got caught initially a little flat-footed when it came to the development of COVID-19 tests, but they’re quickly catching up,” Peter J. Pitts, who was the FDA’s associate commissioner from 2002 to 2004, said in an interview. “I think that the attitude now is, ‘If it’s safe, let’s create a pathway to see how these things work in the real world.’ I think that’s going to be as true for treatments to lessen the symptoms and shorten the duration of the disease, as well as convalescent plasma as a potential alternative to a yet-to-be-developed vaccine.”

At the University of Washington School of Medicine, Seattle, Terry B. Gernsheimer, MD, and her colleagues are recruiting recovered COVID-19 patients to donate plasma for seriously ill patients affected with the virus. “The thought of using convalescent plasma makes total sense, because it’s immediately available, and it’s something that we can try to give people,” said Dr. Gernsheimer, a hematologist who is professor of medicine at the medical school. “It’s been used in China, and reports should be coming out shortly about their experience with this.”

Dr. Terry B. Gernsheimer

In a case series that appeared in JAMA on March 27 (doi: 10.1001/jama.2020.4783), Chinese researchers led by Chenguang Shen, PhD, reported findings from five critically ill COVID-19 patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome who received a transfusion with convalescent plasma at Shenzhen Third People’s Hospital 10 and 22 days after hospital admission. The patients ranged in age from 36 to 73 years, three were men, and all were receiving mechanical ventilation at the time of treatment.

Dr. Shen and colleagues reported that viral loads decreased and became negative within 12 days following the transfusion. Three of the patients were discharged from the hospital after a length of stay that ranged from 51 to 55 days, and two remain in stable condition at 37 days after the transfusion. The researchers pointed out that all patients received antiviral agents, including interferon and lopinavir/ritonavir, during and following convalescent plasma treatment, “which also may have contributed to the viral clearance observed.”

Under the FDA policy on emergency IND use, COVID-19 convalescent plasma must only be collected from recovered individuals if they are eligible to donate blood, required testing must be performed, and the donation must be found suitable.

Potential donors “are going to be screened the way all blood donors are screened,” Dr. Gernsheimer said. “It’s not going to be any less safe than any unit of plasma that’s on the shelf that comes from our volunteer donors. There are always transfusion reactions that we have to worry about, [and] there are potentially unknown pathogens that we don’t yet know about that we are not yet testing for. It’s the regular risk we see with any unit of plasma.”

She added that COVID-19 survivors appear to start increasing their titer of the antibody around day 28. “We’ll be looking for recovered individuals who have had a documented infection, and whose symptoms started about 28 days before we collect,” she said.

The FDA advises clinicians to address several considerations for donor eligibility, including prior diagnosis of COVID-19 documented by a laboratory test; complete resolution of symptoms at least 14 days prior to donation; female donors negative for HLA antibodies or male donors, and negative results for COVID-19 either from one or more nasopharyngeal swab specimens or by a molecular diagnostic test from blood. [A partial list of available tests can be accessed on the FDA website.] The agency also advises that donors have defined SARS-CoV-2–neutralizing antibody titers, if testing can be conducted (optimally greater than 1:320).

Patients eligible to receive COVID-19 convalescent plasma must have a severe or immediately life-threatening infection with laboratory-confirmed COVID-19. The agency defines severe disease as dyspnea, respiratory frequency of 30 per minute or greater, blood oxygen saturation of 93% or less, partial pressure of arterial oxygen to fraction of inspired oxygen ratio of less than 300, and/or lung infiltrates of greater than 50% within 24-48 hours. Life-threatening disease is defined as respiratory failure, septic shock, and/or multiple organ dysfunction or failure. Patients must provide informed consent.

The potential risks of receiving COVID-19 convalescent plasma remain unknown, according to Dr. Gernsheimer. “What some people have thought about is, could there be such an inflammatory response with the virus that we would initially see these patients get worse?” she said. “My understanding is that has not occurred in China yet, but we don’t have all those data. But we always worry if we have something that’s going to cause inflammation around an infection, for example, that could initially make it more difficult to breathe if it’s a lung infection. So far, my understanding is that has not been seen.”

For COVID-19 convalescent plasma authorization requests that require a response within 4-8 hours, requesting clinicians may complete form 3296 and submit it by email to CBER_eIND_Covid-19@FDA.HHS.gov.

For COVID-19 convalescent plasma authorization requests that require a response in less than 4 hours, or if the clinician is unable to complete and submit form 3926 because of extenuating circumstances, verbal authorization can be sought by calling the FDA’s Office of Emergency Operations at 1-866-300-4374.

The FDA is working with the National Institutes of Health, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other government partners to develop protocols for use by multiple investigators in order to coordinate the collection and use of COVID-19 convalescent plasma.

“It’s crucial that data be captured for every patient so that we really understand what safety and effectiveness looks like on as close to a real-world level as we can, as quickly as we can,” said Mr. Pitts, who is president and cofounder of the Center for Medicine in the Public Interest, and who also does consulting work for the FDA. “I understand that health care professionals are overworked and overburdened right now. I applaud them for their heroic work. But that doesn’t mean that we can shirk off collecting the data. When I was at the FDA, I helped address the SARS epidemic. The agency attitude at that point was, ‘Let’s get things that just might work through the process, as long as the cure isn’t going to be worse than the disease.’ I think that’s the attitude that’s leading the charge today.”

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FDA approves ozanimod for relapsing and secondary progressive forms of MS

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The Food and Drug Administration has approved the oral medication ozanimod (Zeposia) for relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis (MS), including clinically isolated syndrome, relapsing-remitting disease, and active secondary progressive disease, according to a release from Bristol-Myers Squibb.

Ozanimod is a sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P) receptor modulator that binds with high affinity to S1P receptors 1 and 5. It blocks the capacity of lymphocytes to egress from lymph nodes, reducing the number of lymphocytes in peripheral blood. Although its therapeutic mechanism of action in MS is unknown, it may involve the reduction of lymphocyte migration into the central nervous system. A genetic test is not required to start the drug, and no patient observation is required for the first dose, although up-titration of initial doses are required to reach the maintenance dose because a transient decrease in heart rate and atrioventricular conduction delays may occur, according to the company.

The approval is based on a pair of head-to-head studies that compared it with interferon beta-1a (Avonex) and together included more than 2,600 patients. It delivered better efficacy in terms of relative reduction in annualized relapse rate (48% at 1 year and 38% at 2 years). It also demonstrated better relative reduction of the number of T1-weighted gadolinium-enhanced brain lesions (63% fewer at 1 year and 53% fewer at 2 years) and number of new or enlarging T2 lesions (48% fewer at 1 year and 42% at 2 years).



Ozanimod is contraindicated in patients who, in the past 6 months, experienced a myocardial infarction, unstable angina, stroke, or other conditions. It is associated with other health risks, including infections, liver injury, additive immunosuppressive effects from prior immune-modulating therapies, and increased blood pressure. Certain assessments, such as recent complete blood count, ECG, liver function test, and current and prior medications and vaccinations, are required before initiation of treatment.

In its announcement, Bristol-Myers Squibb said that it has decided to delay the commercial launch of ozanimod during the COVID-19 pandemic until a later date.

The drug is also in development for additional immune-inflammatory indications, including ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.

The full prescribing information can be found on the company’s website.

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The Food and Drug Administration has approved the oral medication ozanimod (Zeposia) for relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis (MS), including clinically isolated syndrome, relapsing-remitting disease, and active secondary progressive disease, according to a release from Bristol-Myers Squibb.

Ozanimod is a sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P) receptor modulator that binds with high affinity to S1P receptors 1 and 5. It blocks the capacity of lymphocytes to egress from lymph nodes, reducing the number of lymphocytes in peripheral blood. Although its therapeutic mechanism of action in MS is unknown, it may involve the reduction of lymphocyte migration into the central nervous system. A genetic test is not required to start the drug, and no patient observation is required for the first dose, although up-titration of initial doses are required to reach the maintenance dose because a transient decrease in heart rate and atrioventricular conduction delays may occur, according to the company.

The approval is based on a pair of head-to-head studies that compared it with interferon beta-1a (Avonex) and together included more than 2,600 patients. It delivered better efficacy in terms of relative reduction in annualized relapse rate (48% at 1 year and 38% at 2 years). It also demonstrated better relative reduction of the number of T1-weighted gadolinium-enhanced brain lesions (63% fewer at 1 year and 53% fewer at 2 years) and number of new or enlarging T2 lesions (48% fewer at 1 year and 42% at 2 years).



Ozanimod is contraindicated in patients who, in the past 6 months, experienced a myocardial infarction, unstable angina, stroke, or other conditions. It is associated with other health risks, including infections, liver injury, additive immunosuppressive effects from prior immune-modulating therapies, and increased blood pressure. Certain assessments, such as recent complete blood count, ECG, liver function test, and current and prior medications and vaccinations, are required before initiation of treatment.

In its announcement, Bristol-Myers Squibb said that it has decided to delay the commercial launch of ozanimod during the COVID-19 pandemic until a later date.

The drug is also in development for additional immune-inflammatory indications, including ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.

The full prescribing information can be found on the company’s website.

The Food and Drug Administration has approved the oral medication ozanimod (Zeposia) for relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis (MS), including clinically isolated syndrome, relapsing-remitting disease, and active secondary progressive disease, according to a release from Bristol-Myers Squibb.

Ozanimod is a sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P) receptor modulator that binds with high affinity to S1P receptors 1 and 5. It blocks the capacity of lymphocytes to egress from lymph nodes, reducing the number of lymphocytes in peripheral blood. Although its therapeutic mechanism of action in MS is unknown, it may involve the reduction of lymphocyte migration into the central nervous system. A genetic test is not required to start the drug, and no patient observation is required for the first dose, although up-titration of initial doses are required to reach the maintenance dose because a transient decrease in heart rate and atrioventricular conduction delays may occur, according to the company.

The approval is based on a pair of head-to-head studies that compared it with interferon beta-1a (Avonex) and together included more than 2,600 patients. It delivered better efficacy in terms of relative reduction in annualized relapse rate (48% at 1 year and 38% at 2 years). It also demonstrated better relative reduction of the number of T1-weighted gadolinium-enhanced brain lesions (63% fewer at 1 year and 53% fewer at 2 years) and number of new or enlarging T2 lesions (48% fewer at 1 year and 42% at 2 years).



Ozanimod is contraindicated in patients who, in the past 6 months, experienced a myocardial infarction, unstable angina, stroke, or other conditions. It is associated with other health risks, including infections, liver injury, additive immunosuppressive effects from prior immune-modulating therapies, and increased blood pressure. Certain assessments, such as recent complete blood count, ECG, liver function test, and current and prior medications and vaccinations, are required before initiation of treatment.

In its announcement, Bristol-Myers Squibb said that it has decided to delay the commercial launch of ozanimod during the COVID-19 pandemic until a later date.

The drug is also in development for additional immune-inflammatory indications, including ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.

The full prescribing information can be found on the company’s website.

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FDA to allow alternative respiratory devices to treat COVID-19

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The Food and Drug Administration identified a number of medical devices that can be used to help treat patients suffering from COVID-19 if ventilators are not available. “Whenever possible, health care facilities should use FDA-cleared conventional/standard full-featured ventilators when necessary to support patients with respiratory failure, or a device subject to an Emergency Use Authorization (EUA), if any,” FDA stated in a guidance document issued March 22.

“However, to help ensure the availability of the greatest possible number of devices for this purpose, ... FDA does not intend to object to limited modifications to indications, claims, functionality, or to the hardware, software, or materials of FDA-cleared devices used to support patients with respiratory failure or respiratory insufficiency, without prior submission of a premarket notification” for the duration of the declared national emergency related to the COVID-19 pandemic.

FDA Commissioner Stephen Hahn, MD, said in a statement that the agency is doing everything it can to support patients, health care professionals, and others during this pandemic.

“One of the most impactful steps we can take is to help with access and availability to life-saving medical treatments,” he said. “Our policy issued today demonstrates our ability to react and adapt quickly during this pandemic and help very ill patients access the lifesaving ventilator support they need. To do that, we are providing maximum regulatory flexibility to facilitate an increase in ventilator inventory, while still providing crucial FDA oversight. We believe this action will immediately increase ventilator availability.”

The document identified examples of where modifications would not create undue risk, including the use of powered emergency ventilators and anesthesia gas machines for patients needing mechanical ventilation; the use of ventilators outside of their cleared environment; the use of devices used to treat patients with sleep apnea, such as CPAPs and BiPAPs, to treat respiratory insufficiency when appropriate design mitigations are in place to minimize aerosolization; and the use of oxygen concentrators for primary supply when medically necessary and clinically appropriate.

The agency also is allowing for changes to the hardware, software, and materials to FDA-cleared ventilators and anesthesia gas machines, such as modifications to motors, batteries, or other electrical components; material changes to components in the gas pathways or with other patient tissue contact; the introduction of filtration to minimize aerosolization; and other hardware and software modifications.

FDA is also allowing for products to be used past their indicated shelf life.

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The Food and Drug Administration identified a number of medical devices that can be used to help treat patients suffering from COVID-19 if ventilators are not available. “Whenever possible, health care facilities should use FDA-cleared conventional/standard full-featured ventilators when necessary to support patients with respiratory failure, or a device subject to an Emergency Use Authorization (EUA), if any,” FDA stated in a guidance document issued March 22.

“However, to help ensure the availability of the greatest possible number of devices for this purpose, ... FDA does not intend to object to limited modifications to indications, claims, functionality, or to the hardware, software, or materials of FDA-cleared devices used to support patients with respiratory failure or respiratory insufficiency, without prior submission of a premarket notification” for the duration of the declared national emergency related to the COVID-19 pandemic.

FDA Commissioner Stephen Hahn, MD, said in a statement that the agency is doing everything it can to support patients, health care professionals, and others during this pandemic.

“One of the most impactful steps we can take is to help with access and availability to life-saving medical treatments,” he said. “Our policy issued today demonstrates our ability to react and adapt quickly during this pandemic and help very ill patients access the lifesaving ventilator support they need. To do that, we are providing maximum regulatory flexibility to facilitate an increase in ventilator inventory, while still providing crucial FDA oversight. We believe this action will immediately increase ventilator availability.”

The document identified examples of where modifications would not create undue risk, including the use of powered emergency ventilators and anesthesia gas machines for patients needing mechanical ventilation; the use of ventilators outside of their cleared environment; the use of devices used to treat patients with sleep apnea, such as CPAPs and BiPAPs, to treat respiratory insufficiency when appropriate design mitigations are in place to minimize aerosolization; and the use of oxygen concentrators for primary supply when medically necessary and clinically appropriate.

The agency also is allowing for changes to the hardware, software, and materials to FDA-cleared ventilators and anesthesia gas machines, such as modifications to motors, batteries, or other electrical components; material changes to components in the gas pathways or with other patient tissue contact; the introduction of filtration to minimize aerosolization; and other hardware and software modifications.

FDA is also allowing for products to be used past their indicated shelf life.

The Food and Drug Administration identified a number of medical devices that can be used to help treat patients suffering from COVID-19 if ventilators are not available. “Whenever possible, health care facilities should use FDA-cleared conventional/standard full-featured ventilators when necessary to support patients with respiratory failure, or a device subject to an Emergency Use Authorization (EUA), if any,” FDA stated in a guidance document issued March 22.

“However, to help ensure the availability of the greatest possible number of devices for this purpose, ... FDA does not intend to object to limited modifications to indications, claims, functionality, or to the hardware, software, or materials of FDA-cleared devices used to support patients with respiratory failure or respiratory insufficiency, without prior submission of a premarket notification” for the duration of the declared national emergency related to the COVID-19 pandemic.

FDA Commissioner Stephen Hahn, MD, said in a statement that the agency is doing everything it can to support patients, health care professionals, and others during this pandemic.

“One of the most impactful steps we can take is to help with access and availability to life-saving medical treatments,” he said. “Our policy issued today demonstrates our ability to react and adapt quickly during this pandemic and help very ill patients access the lifesaving ventilator support they need. To do that, we are providing maximum regulatory flexibility to facilitate an increase in ventilator inventory, while still providing crucial FDA oversight. We believe this action will immediately increase ventilator availability.”

The document identified examples of where modifications would not create undue risk, including the use of powered emergency ventilators and anesthesia gas machines for patients needing mechanical ventilation; the use of ventilators outside of their cleared environment; the use of devices used to treat patients with sleep apnea, such as CPAPs and BiPAPs, to treat respiratory insufficiency when appropriate design mitigations are in place to minimize aerosolization; and the use of oxygen concentrators for primary supply when medically necessary and clinically appropriate.

The agency also is allowing for changes to the hardware, software, and materials to FDA-cleared ventilators and anesthesia gas machines, such as modifications to motors, batteries, or other electrical components; material changes to components in the gas pathways or with other patient tissue contact; the introduction of filtration to minimize aerosolization; and other hardware and software modifications.

FDA is also allowing for products to be used past their indicated shelf life.

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Three COVID-19 rapid diagnostic tests get FDA thumbs-up

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The Food and Drug Administration has issued Emergency Use Authorizations for three products offering rapid, point-of-care diagnostic tests for COVID-19.

Wikimedia Commons/FitzColinGerald/ Creative Commons License

The first authorization, announced by the agency on March 21, was for the Xpert Xpress SARS-CoV-2 test, a rapid molecular diagnostic test for qualitative detection of SARS-CoV-2, the virus causing COVID-19.

The test, manufactured by Cepheid, has a detection time of 45 minutes and has been designed to operate on any of the company’s more than 23,000 automated GeneXpert Systems worldwide, according to a statement from the company.

The agency said in its EUA approval document the test is for a “qualitative detection of nucleic acid from the SARS-CoV-2 in nasopharyngeal swab and/or nasal wash/aspirate specimens collected from patients who are suspected of having COVID-19 infection.” Positive results are indicative of an infection but do not rule out other potential infections, it noted.

The company plans to roll out the test by March 30, according to the FDA.

Cepheid said in a statement that it has almost 5,000 GeneXpert systems in the United States that are capable of point-of-care testing and ready for use in hospitals. “Our automated systems do not require users to have specialty training to perform testing – they are capable of running 24/7, with many systems already doing so today,” Warren Kocmond, the company’s president, said in the statement.

FDA Commissioner Stephen Hahn, MD said in a statement that the authorization marked “an important step in expanding the availability of testing and, importantly, rapid results. Point-of-care testing means that results are delivered to the patient in the patient-care settings, like hospitals, urgent care centers, and emergency rooms, instead of samples being sent to a laboratory. With today’s authorization, there is now an option for testing at the point of care, which enables patient access to more immediate results.”

On March 23, the agency issued an emergency use authorization to bioMerieux subsidiary BioFire Defense LLC for its BIOFIRE COVID-19 test, which detects SARS-CoV-2 from a nasopharyngeal swab in about 45 minutes.

The test was developed with funding from the U.S. Department of Defense.

“Positive results are indicative of the presence of SARS-CoV-2 RNA; clinical correlation with patient history and other diagnostic information is necessary to determine patient infection status,” the agency said in its approval document. It again noted that positive results did not rule out bacterial infection or coinfection with other viruses.

Also on March 23, the agency issued an EUA to Mesa Biotech for its Accula SARS-CoV-2 test, which gives COVID-19 diagnostic results in 30 minutes.

The test is indicated for “qualitative, visual detection of nucleic acid from the SARS-CoV-2 in throat swab and nasal swab specimens combined, collected from patients suspected of COVID-19 by their health care provider,” according to the FDA approval document. “The SARS-CoV-2 nucleic acid is generally detectable in throat and nasal swab specimens during the acute phase of infection. Positive results are indicative of the presence of SARS-CoV-2 nucleic acid; clinical correlation with patient history and other diagnostic information is necessary to determine patient infection status. Positive results do not rule out bacterial infection or coinfection with other viruses.”

Mesa Biotech said in a statement that the test is designed for point-of-care use, including at temporary screening facilities, physician office labs, urgent care, and long-term nursing facilities.

“Our test will provide a highly accessible means for health care professionals to access laboratory quality results close in their office to aid in the decision to isolate, treat, or dismiss potential carriers of the virus,” Hong Cai, the CEO and cofounder of Mesa Biotech, said in a statement. “The potential to reduce the growing strain on our nation’s hospitals is tremendous.”

In separate letters to the three companies notifying them of the authorizations, the FDA said the emergency use of the products met the criteria for issuances of authorization because the SARS-CoV-2 can cause a serious or life-threatening disease or condition; it was “reasonable to believe

that [the] product may be effective in diagnosing COVID-19; and there is no “adequate, approved, and available alternative” to the emergency use of the three products.

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The Food and Drug Administration has issued Emergency Use Authorizations for three products offering rapid, point-of-care diagnostic tests for COVID-19.

Wikimedia Commons/FitzColinGerald/ Creative Commons License

The first authorization, announced by the agency on March 21, was for the Xpert Xpress SARS-CoV-2 test, a rapid molecular diagnostic test for qualitative detection of SARS-CoV-2, the virus causing COVID-19.

The test, manufactured by Cepheid, has a detection time of 45 minutes and has been designed to operate on any of the company’s more than 23,000 automated GeneXpert Systems worldwide, according to a statement from the company.

The agency said in its EUA approval document the test is for a “qualitative detection of nucleic acid from the SARS-CoV-2 in nasopharyngeal swab and/or nasal wash/aspirate specimens collected from patients who are suspected of having COVID-19 infection.” Positive results are indicative of an infection but do not rule out other potential infections, it noted.

The company plans to roll out the test by March 30, according to the FDA.

Cepheid said in a statement that it has almost 5,000 GeneXpert systems in the United States that are capable of point-of-care testing and ready for use in hospitals. “Our automated systems do not require users to have specialty training to perform testing – they are capable of running 24/7, with many systems already doing so today,” Warren Kocmond, the company’s president, said in the statement.

FDA Commissioner Stephen Hahn, MD said in a statement that the authorization marked “an important step in expanding the availability of testing and, importantly, rapid results. Point-of-care testing means that results are delivered to the patient in the patient-care settings, like hospitals, urgent care centers, and emergency rooms, instead of samples being sent to a laboratory. With today’s authorization, there is now an option for testing at the point of care, which enables patient access to more immediate results.”

On March 23, the agency issued an emergency use authorization to bioMerieux subsidiary BioFire Defense LLC for its BIOFIRE COVID-19 test, which detects SARS-CoV-2 from a nasopharyngeal swab in about 45 minutes.

The test was developed with funding from the U.S. Department of Defense.

“Positive results are indicative of the presence of SARS-CoV-2 RNA; clinical correlation with patient history and other diagnostic information is necessary to determine patient infection status,” the agency said in its approval document. It again noted that positive results did not rule out bacterial infection or coinfection with other viruses.

Also on March 23, the agency issued an EUA to Mesa Biotech for its Accula SARS-CoV-2 test, which gives COVID-19 diagnostic results in 30 minutes.

The test is indicated for “qualitative, visual detection of nucleic acid from the SARS-CoV-2 in throat swab and nasal swab specimens combined, collected from patients suspected of COVID-19 by their health care provider,” according to the FDA approval document. “The SARS-CoV-2 nucleic acid is generally detectable in throat and nasal swab specimens during the acute phase of infection. Positive results are indicative of the presence of SARS-CoV-2 nucleic acid; clinical correlation with patient history and other diagnostic information is necessary to determine patient infection status. Positive results do not rule out bacterial infection or coinfection with other viruses.”

Mesa Biotech said in a statement that the test is designed for point-of-care use, including at temporary screening facilities, physician office labs, urgent care, and long-term nursing facilities.

“Our test will provide a highly accessible means for health care professionals to access laboratory quality results close in their office to aid in the decision to isolate, treat, or dismiss potential carriers of the virus,” Hong Cai, the CEO and cofounder of Mesa Biotech, said in a statement. “The potential to reduce the growing strain on our nation’s hospitals is tremendous.”

In separate letters to the three companies notifying them of the authorizations, the FDA said the emergency use of the products met the criteria for issuances of authorization because the SARS-CoV-2 can cause a serious or life-threatening disease or condition; it was “reasonable to believe

that [the] product may be effective in diagnosing COVID-19; and there is no “adequate, approved, and available alternative” to the emergency use of the three products.

The Food and Drug Administration has issued Emergency Use Authorizations for three products offering rapid, point-of-care diagnostic tests for COVID-19.

Wikimedia Commons/FitzColinGerald/ Creative Commons License

The first authorization, announced by the agency on March 21, was for the Xpert Xpress SARS-CoV-2 test, a rapid molecular diagnostic test for qualitative detection of SARS-CoV-2, the virus causing COVID-19.

The test, manufactured by Cepheid, has a detection time of 45 minutes and has been designed to operate on any of the company’s more than 23,000 automated GeneXpert Systems worldwide, according to a statement from the company.

The agency said in its EUA approval document the test is for a “qualitative detection of nucleic acid from the SARS-CoV-2 in nasopharyngeal swab and/or nasal wash/aspirate specimens collected from patients who are suspected of having COVID-19 infection.” Positive results are indicative of an infection but do not rule out other potential infections, it noted.

The company plans to roll out the test by March 30, according to the FDA.

Cepheid said in a statement that it has almost 5,000 GeneXpert systems in the United States that are capable of point-of-care testing and ready for use in hospitals. “Our automated systems do not require users to have specialty training to perform testing – they are capable of running 24/7, with many systems already doing so today,” Warren Kocmond, the company’s president, said in the statement.

FDA Commissioner Stephen Hahn, MD said in a statement that the authorization marked “an important step in expanding the availability of testing and, importantly, rapid results. Point-of-care testing means that results are delivered to the patient in the patient-care settings, like hospitals, urgent care centers, and emergency rooms, instead of samples being sent to a laboratory. With today’s authorization, there is now an option for testing at the point of care, which enables patient access to more immediate results.”

On March 23, the agency issued an emergency use authorization to bioMerieux subsidiary BioFire Defense LLC for its BIOFIRE COVID-19 test, which detects SARS-CoV-2 from a nasopharyngeal swab in about 45 minutes.

The test was developed with funding from the U.S. Department of Defense.

“Positive results are indicative of the presence of SARS-CoV-2 RNA; clinical correlation with patient history and other diagnostic information is necessary to determine patient infection status,” the agency said in its approval document. It again noted that positive results did not rule out bacterial infection or coinfection with other viruses.

Also on March 23, the agency issued an EUA to Mesa Biotech for its Accula SARS-CoV-2 test, which gives COVID-19 diagnostic results in 30 minutes.

The test is indicated for “qualitative, visual detection of nucleic acid from the SARS-CoV-2 in throat swab and nasal swab specimens combined, collected from patients suspected of COVID-19 by their health care provider,” according to the FDA approval document. “The SARS-CoV-2 nucleic acid is generally detectable in throat and nasal swab specimens during the acute phase of infection. Positive results are indicative of the presence of SARS-CoV-2 nucleic acid; clinical correlation with patient history and other diagnostic information is necessary to determine patient infection status. Positive results do not rule out bacterial infection or coinfection with other viruses.”

Mesa Biotech said in a statement that the test is designed for point-of-care use, including at temporary screening facilities, physician office labs, urgent care, and long-term nursing facilities.

“Our test will provide a highly accessible means for health care professionals to access laboratory quality results close in their office to aid in the decision to isolate, treat, or dismiss potential carriers of the virus,” Hong Cai, the CEO and cofounder of Mesa Biotech, said in a statement. “The potential to reduce the growing strain on our nation’s hospitals is tremendous.”

In separate letters to the three companies notifying them of the authorizations, the FDA said the emergency use of the products met the criteria for issuances of authorization because the SARS-CoV-2 can cause a serious or life-threatening disease or condition; it was “reasonable to believe

that [the] product may be effective in diagnosing COVID-19; and there is no “adequate, approved, and available alternative” to the emergency use of the three products.

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FDA advises stopping SGLT2 inhibitor treatment prior to surgery

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The Food and Drug Administration has approved safety labeling changes to all sodium-glucose transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors used to treat high blood sugar in patients with type 2 diabetes.

The new changes affect canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, empagliflozin, and ertugliflozin, and were made because surgery may put patients being treated with SGLT2 inhibitors at a higher risk of ketoacidosis. Canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin should be discontinued 3 days before scheduled surgery, and ertugliflozin should be stopped at least 4 days before, the agency noted in a press release. Blood glucose should be monitored after drug discontinuation and appropriately managed before surgery.

“The SGLT2 inhibitor may be restarted once the patient’s oral intake is back to baseline and any other risk factors for ketoacidosis are resolved,” the agency added.

SGLT2 inhibitors lower blood sugar by causing the kidney to remove sugar from the body through urine. Side effects for the drugs vary, but include urinary tract infections and genital mycotic infection. Patients with severe renal impairment or end-stage renal disease, who are on dialysis treatment, or who have a known hypersensitivity to the medication should not take SGLT2 inhibitors, the FDA said.

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The Food and Drug Administration has approved safety labeling changes to all sodium-glucose transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors used to treat high blood sugar in patients with type 2 diabetes.

The new changes affect canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, empagliflozin, and ertugliflozin, and were made because surgery may put patients being treated with SGLT2 inhibitors at a higher risk of ketoacidosis. Canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin should be discontinued 3 days before scheduled surgery, and ertugliflozin should be stopped at least 4 days before, the agency noted in a press release. Blood glucose should be monitored after drug discontinuation and appropriately managed before surgery.

“The SGLT2 inhibitor may be restarted once the patient’s oral intake is back to baseline and any other risk factors for ketoacidosis are resolved,” the agency added.

SGLT2 inhibitors lower blood sugar by causing the kidney to remove sugar from the body through urine. Side effects for the drugs vary, but include urinary tract infections and genital mycotic infection. Patients with severe renal impairment or end-stage renal disease, who are on dialysis treatment, or who have a known hypersensitivity to the medication should not take SGLT2 inhibitors, the FDA said.

The Food and Drug Administration has approved safety labeling changes to all sodium-glucose transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors used to treat high blood sugar in patients with type 2 diabetes.

The new changes affect canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, empagliflozin, and ertugliflozin, and were made because surgery may put patients being treated with SGLT2 inhibitors at a higher risk of ketoacidosis. Canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin should be discontinued 3 days before scheduled surgery, and ertugliflozin should be stopped at least 4 days before, the agency noted in a press release. Blood glucose should be monitored after drug discontinuation and appropriately managed before surgery.

“The SGLT2 inhibitor may be restarted once the patient’s oral intake is back to baseline and any other risk factors for ketoacidosis are resolved,” the agency added.

SGLT2 inhibitors lower blood sugar by causing the kidney to remove sugar from the body through urine. Side effects for the drugs vary, but include urinary tract infections and genital mycotic infection. Patients with severe renal impairment or end-stage renal disease, who are on dialysis treatment, or who have a known hypersensitivity to the medication should not take SGLT2 inhibitors, the FDA said.

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