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Why go to international conferences?
I recently returned from the DASS (Dermatology and Allied Specialties Summit) in New Delhi. It was interesting and thought provoking. New Delhi, and India in general, are modern and ancient, growing like Topsy, crushed into one another, in a hyperkinetic mix, something like Mexico on amphetamines.
I generally find conferences far afield introduce novel ideas. It helps greatly that these conferences almost always use English as the official language.
The underlying concept for DASS is multidisciplinary, which is unusual in dermatology. It was rewarding to discuss skin cancer treatment with surgical oncologists, plastic and general surgeons, and medical oncologists. There were also discussions on polycystic ovary disease, rosacea and the “red face,” current treatment of Hansen disease, man-eating psoriasis and urticaria, and of course, botulinum toxin, fillers, lasers, and chemical peels. Of great interest were new “old” treatments for skin disease, since biologics are generally not affordable.
I also got into lively discussions at the World Congress of Dermatology in Vancouver a few weeks earlier. The problem in many countries is funding of dermatologic treatments (particularly Mohs) within a fixed dermatology budget. We in the United States can vote with our feet, and generally seek out treatment we decide is best. Over the past 30 years, 70% of skin cancer has migrated from hospital-based surgical specialties to office-based dermatology, at great cost savings to the health care system.
In most of the world, the government allocates money, and tells hospitals and doctors to make do. This results in a static, change-resistant budget process, where patients have even fewer choices than in the U.S. Hospitals always win in these budget battles, to the detriment of office-based medicine and patient choice, and innovation.
Internationally, correcting this may require dermatologists going to politicians and not saying, “we need more money,” but rather saying, “we can save you money.” For example, if 99% of skin cancer treatment moves out of the hospital to the office setting, where it should be, the budgeteers should be delighted to pay your office costs, which are a fraction of those for an operating room. The budget should reflect that X number of new operating rooms do not need to be built, X number of scrub nurses do not need to trained or can be reassigned, X number of support staff are not needed, or that wait times, a chronic complaint around the world, can shrink.
There will be resistance to this approach from hospital-dependent specialists, and the hospitals. They will argue it isn’t safe, and that the costs aren’t defined. However, these issues have been worked out in detail and the data published.
The same argument can be made for the use of biologics. How many erythrodermic hospitalizations will be avoided? How many missed days of work will not be missed?
It is far easier to budge a bureaucracy by emphasizing cost savings rather than quality, though these are opportunities for dermatologists to improve both.
Dr. Coldiron is in private practice, but maintains a clinical assistant professorship of dermatology at the University of Cincinnati. Email him at dermnews@frontlinemedcom.com.
I recently returned from the DASS (Dermatology and Allied Specialties Summit) in New Delhi. It was interesting and thought provoking. New Delhi, and India in general, are modern and ancient, growing like Topsy, crushed into one another, in a hyperkinetic mix, something like Mexico on amphetamines.
I generally find conferences far afield introduce novel ideas. It helps greatly that these conferences almost always use English as the official language.
The underlying concept for DASS is multidisciplinary, which is unusual in dermatology. It was rewarding to discuss skin cancer treatment with surgical oncologists, plastic and general surgeons, and medical oncologists. There were also discussions on polycystic ovary disease, rosacea and the “red face,” current treatment of Hansen disease, man-eating psoriasis and urticaria, and of course, botulinum toxin, fillers, lasers, and chemical peels. Of great interest were new “old” treatments for skin disease, since biologics are generally not affordable.
I also got into lively discussions at the World Congress of Dermatology in Vancouver a few weeks earlier. The problem in many countries is funding of dermatologic treatments (particularly Mohs) within a fixed dermatology budget. We in the United States can vote with our feet, and generally seek out treatment we decide is best. Over the past 30 years, 70% of skin cancer has migrated from hospital-based surgical specialties to office-based dermatology, at great cost savings to the health care system.
In most of the world, the government allocates money, and tells hospitals and doctors to make do. This results in a static, change-resistant budget process, where patients have even fewer choices than in the U.S. Hospitals always win in these budget battles, to the detriment of office-based medicine and patient choice, and innovation.
Internationally, correcting this may require dermatologists going to politicians and not saying, “we need more money,” but rather saying, “we can save you money.” For example, if 99% of skin cancer treatment moves out of the hospital to the office setting, where it should be, the budgeteers should be delighted to pay your office costs, which are a fraction of those for an operating room. The budget should reflect that X number of new operating rooms do not need to be built, X number of scrub nurses do not need to trained or can be reassigned, X number of support staff are not needed, or that wait times, a chronic complaint around the world, can shrink.
There will be resistance to this approach from hospital-dependent specialists, and the hospitals. They will argue it isn’t safe, and that the costs aren’t defined. However, these issues have been worked out in detail and the data published.
The same argument can be made for the use of biologics. How many erythrodermic hospitalizations will be avoided? How many missed days of work will not be missed?
It is far easier to budge a bureaucracy by emphasizing cost savings rather than quality, though these are opportunities for dermatologists to improve both.
Dr. Coldiron is in private practice, but maintains a clinical assistant professorship of dermatology at the University of Cincinnati. Email him at dermnews@frontlinemedcom.com.
I recently returned from the DASS (Dermatology and Allied Specialties Summit) in New Delhi. It was interesting and thought provoking. New Delhi, and India in general, are modern and ancient, growing like Topsy, crushed into one another, in a hyperkinetic mix, something like Mexico on amphetamines.
I generally find conferences far afield introduce novel ideas. It helps greatly that these conferences almost always use English as the official language.
The underlying concept for DASS is multidisciplinary, which is unusual in dermatology. It was rewarding to discuss skin cancer treatment with surgical oncologists, plastic and general surgeons, and medical oncologists. There were also discussions on polycystic ovary disease, rosacea and the “red face,” current treatment of Hansen disease, man-eating psoriasis and urticaria, and of course, botulinum toxin, fillers, lasers, and chemical peels. Of great interest were new “old” treatments for skin disease, since biologics are generally not affordable.
I also got into lively discussions at the World Congress of Dermatology in Vancouver a few weeks earlier. The problem in many countries is funding of dermatologic treatments (particularly Mohs) within a fixed dermatology budget. We in the United States can vote with our feet, and generally seek out treatment we decide is best. Over the past 30 years, 70% of skin cancer has migrated from hospital-based surgical specialties to office-based dermatology, at great cost savings to the health care system.
In most of the world, the government allocates money, and tells hospitals and doctors to make do. This results in a static, change-resistant budget process, where patients have even fewer choices than in the U.S. Hospitals always win in these budget battles, to the detriment of office-based medicine and patient choice, and innovation.
Internationally, correcting this may require dermatologists going to politicians and not saying, “we need more money,” but rather saying, “we can save you money.” For example, if 99% of skin cancer treatment moves out of the hospital to the office setting, where it should be, the budgeteers should be delighted to pay your office costs, which are a fraction of those for an operating room. The budget should reflect that X number of new operating rooms do not need to be built, X number of scrub nurses do not need to trained or can be reassigned, X number of support staff are not needed, or that wait times, a chronic complaint around the world, can shrink.
There will be resistance to this approach from hospital-dependent specialists, and the hospitals. They will argue it isn’t safe, and that the costs aren’t defined. However, these issues have been worked out in detail and the data published.
The same argument can be made for the use of biologics. How many erythrodermic hospitalizations will be avoided? How many missed days of work will not be missed?
It is far easier to budge a bureaucracy by emphasizing cost savings rather than quality, though these are opportunities for dermatologists to improve both.
Dr. Coldiron is in private practice, but maintains a clinical assistant professorship of dermatology at the University of Cincinnati. Email him at dermnews@frontlinemedcom.com.
Triple Therapy May Increase Major Bleeding in Older Patients with Acute MI, AF
NEW YORK - Compared with dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT), triple therapy increases the risk of major bleeding without altering the rates of myocardial infarction (MI), stroke, or death in older patients with acute MI and atrial fibrillation (AF), according to a registry study.
"These data suggest that the risk-benefit ratio of triple therapy in older patients with myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation should be carefully considered," Dr. Connie N. Hess, from Duke Clinical Research Institute, Duke University, Durham, North Carolina, told Reuters Health by email. "However, these results need to be confirmed with prospective studies; a number of ongoing randomized clinical trials may help to provide insight."
Therapeutic decisions for older patients with acute MI and AF are challenging, not least because they have been excluded from or underrepresented in clinical trials.
Dr. Hess's team linked data from the ACTION Registry Get With The Guidelines and Medicare administrative claims to compare outcomes with DAPT or triple therapy (DAPT plus warfarin) in 4959 patients age 65 and older with acute MI and AF who underwent coronary stenting.
More patients were discharged on DAPT (72.4%) than on triple therapy (27.6%), the researchers report in the August 11 issue of the Journal of the American College of Cardiology (JACC), available online now.
The primary effectiveness outcome, major adverse cardiac events (MACE, including death or readmission for MI or stroke) at two years, did not differ in incidence between triple therapy (32.6%) and DAPT (32.7%), and there were no significant differences in the incidences of the individual MACE components.
In contrast, the cumulative incidence of bleeding requiring hospitalization within two years of discharge was significantly higher for patients on triple therapy (17.6%) than for patients on DAPT (11.0%; p<0.0001), and this difference persisted after adjustment for case-mix, treatment, and hospital features.
Triple therapy was also associated with a 2.04-fold higher risk of intracranial hemorrhage, compared with DAPT.
The association of triple therapy with MACE and bleeding outcomes was similar for patients older and younger than 75, for men and women, for patients with low and high predicted stroke risk, for patients with shorter versus longer duration of AF, for patients treated with drug-eluting versus bare-metal stents, and for patients presenting with non-ST-segment elevation MI versus ST-segment elevation MI.
"Until we have data from prospective studies to define optimal antithrombotic use in older patients with myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation, providers should be especially mindful of an individual's bleeding risk when deciding to prescribe triple therapy," Dr. Hess concluded.
Dr. John C. Messenger, from the University of Colorado School of Medicine, Aurora, cowrote an editorial related to this report. He told Reuters Health by email, "We should ideally look to minimize duration of triple therapy, keeping it as short as possible. We also need to enroll patients in trials designed to evaluate double therapy without the use of aspirin."
"With the change in guidelines recommending oral anticoagulation for patients with atrial fibrillation at lower risk for ischemic stroke, the negative impact of bleeding related to the use of triple therapy may far outweigh the benefit of reduction of ischemic stroke," Dr. Messenger said. "We obviously need further study on this topic."
Dr. Andrea Rubboli, from Ospedale Maggiore, Bologna, Italy, has researched how best to treat these patients. He told Reuters Health by email, "Given that I practice in Europe, where current guidelines recommend triple therapy for these patients, what I found most surprising is the relatively small proportion of AF patients treated with (percutaneous coronary intervention) PCI who were discharged on triple therapy. Conversely, it was not surprising that DAPT was comparable to triple therapy in terms of MACE and superior in terms of bleeding because this has been previously reported and the several limitations of this kind of analysis (especially the lack of information on the therapy really ongoing at the time of event) may account for that."
"Triple therapy confirmed to be the best treatment for these patients," Dr. Rubboli concluded. "While not reducing MACE versus DAPT, it is indeed significantly more effective in reducing the most feared and devastating complication of AF, that is, stroke. Given the increased risk of bleeding, however, great care should be put in monitoring such therapy."
Dr. Nikolaus Sarafoff, from Ludwig-Maximilians University, Munich, Germany, told Reuters Health by email, "In my opinion, one major limitation of the study is that only 7.7% of patients in the DAPT group were on oral anticoagulation (OAC) at randomization as compared to 62.1% in the triple arm. This shows clearly that physicians felt that patients in the DAPT arm had no real indication for OAC (even before the myocardial infarction with PCI occurred) and this makes the comparison of the two groups very difficult."
"The indication for triple therapy and the optimal antithrombotic treatment should be taken carefully, weighing the bleeding and the ischemic risk of the patient," Dr. Sarafoff concluded. "Several options to reduce bleeding complications in this high-risk population exist, such as omitting aspirin, shortening the duration of therapy. The results of the present study cannot supplant current guidelines that state clearly that patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc Score 2 are in need of OAC no matter whether concomitant antiplatelet therapy is needed."
The American College of Cardiology Foundation's National Cardiovascular Data Registry supported this study. Three coauthors reported relevant relationships.
NEW YORK - Compared with dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT), triple therapy increases the risk of major bleeding without altering the rates of myocardial infarction (MI), stroke, or death in older patients with acute MI and atrial fibrillation (AF), according to a registry study.
"These data suggest that the risk-benefit ratio of triple therapy in older patients with myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation should be carefully considered," Dr. Connie N. Hess, from Duke Clinical Research Institute, Duke University, Durham, North Carolina, told Reuters Health by email. "However, these results need to be confirmed with prospective studies; a number of ongoing randomized clinical trials may help to provide insight."
Therapeutic decisions for older patients with acute MI and AF are challenging, not least because they have been excluded from or underrepresented in clinical trials.
Dr. Hess's team linked data from the ACTION Registry Get With The Guidelines and Medicare administrative claims to compare outcomes with DAPT or triple therapy (DAPT plus warfarin) in 4959 patients age 65 and older with acute MI and AF who underwent coronary stenting.
More patients were discharged on DAPT (72.4%) than on triple therapy (27.6%), the researchers report in the August 11 issue of the Journal of the American College of Cardiology (JACC), available online now.
The primary effectiveness outcome, major adverse cardiac events (MACE, including death or readmission for MI or stroke) at two years, did not differ in incidence between triple therapy (32.6%) and DAPT (32.7%), and there were no significant differences in the incidences of the individual MACE components.
In contrast, the cumulative incidence of bleeding requiring hospitalization within two years of discharge was significantly higher for patients on triple therapy (17.6%) than for patients on DAPT (11.0%; p<0.0001), and this difference persisted after adjustment for case-mix, treatment, and hospital features.
Triple therapy was also associated with a 2.04-fold higher risk of intracranial hemorrhage, compared with DAPT.
The association of triple therapy with MACE and bleeding outcomes was similar for patients older and younger than 75, for men and women, for patients with low and high predicted stroke risk, for patients with shorter versus longer duration of AF, for patients treated with drug-eluting versus bare-metal stents, and for patients presenting with non-ST-segment elevation MI versus ST-segment elevation MI.
"Until we have data from prospective studies to define optimal antithrombotic use in older patients with myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation, providers should be especially mindful of an individual's bleeding risk when deciding to prescribe triple therapy," Dr. Hess concluded.
Dr. John C. Messenger, from the University of Colorado School of Medicine, Aurora, cowrote an editorial related to this report. He told Reuters Health by email, "We should ideally look to minimize duration of triple therapy, keeping it as short as possible. We also need to enroll patients in trials designed to evaluate double therapy without the use of aspirin."
"With the change in guidelines recommending oral anticoagulation for patients with atrial fibrillation at lower risk for ischemic stroke, the negative impact of bleeding related to the use of triple therapy may far outweigh the benefit of reduction of ischemic stroke," Dr. Messenger said. "We obviously need further study on this topic."
Dr. Andrea Rubboli, from Ospedale Maggiore, Bologna, Italy, has researched how best to treat these patients. He told Reuters Health by email, "Given that I practice in Europe, where current guidelines recommend triple therapy for these patients, what I found most surprising is the relatively small proportion of AF patients treated with (percutaneous coronary intervention) PCI who were discharged on triple therapy. Conversely, it was not surprising that DAPT was comparable to triple therapy in terms of MACE and superior in terms of bleeding because this has been previously reported and the several limitations of this kind of analysis (especially the lack of information on the therapy really ongoing at the time of event) may account for that."
"Triple therapy confirmed to be the best treatment for these patients," Dr. Rubboli concluded. "While not reducing MACE versus DAPT, it is indeed significantly more effective in reducing the most feared and devastating complication of AF, that is, stroke. Given the increased risk of bleeding, however, great care should be put in monitoring such therapy."
Dr. Nikolaus Sarafoff, from Ludwig-Maximilians University, Munich, Germany, told Reuters Health by email, "In my opinion, one major limitation of the study is that only 7.7% of patients in the DAPT group were on oral anticoagulation (OAC) at randomization as compared to 62.1% in the triple arm. This shows clearly that physicians felt that patients in the DAPT arm had no real indication for OAC (even before the myocardial infarction with PCI occurred) and this makes the comparison of the two groups very difficult."
"The indication for triple therapy and the optimal antithrombotic treatment should be taken carefully, weighing the bleeding and the ischemic risk of the patient," Dr. Sarafoff concluded. "Several options to reduce bleeding complications in this high-risk population exist, such as omitting aspirin, shortening the duration of therapy. The results of the present study cannot supplant current guidelines that state clearly that patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc Score 2 are in need of OAC no matter whether concomitant antiplatelet therapy is needed."
The American College of Cardiology Foundation's National Cardiovascular Data Registry supported this study. Three coauthors reported relevant relationships.
NEW YORK - Compared with dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT), triple therapy increases the risk of major bleeding without altering the rates of myocardial infarction (MI), stroke, or death in older patients with acute MI and atrial fibrillation (AF), according to a registry study.
"These data suggest that the risk-benefit ratio of triple therapy in older patients with myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation should be carefully considered," Dr. Connie N. Hess, from Duke Clinical Research Institute, Duke University, Durham, North Carolina, told Reuters Health by email. "However, these results need to be confirmed with prospective studies; a number of ongoing randomized clinical trials may help to provide insight."
Therapeutic decisions for older patients with acute MI and AF are challenging, not least because they have been excluded from or underrepresented in clinical trials.
Dr. Hess's team linked data from the ACTION Registry Get With The Guidelines and Medicare administrative claims to compare outcomes with DAPT or triple therapy (DAPT plus warfarin) in 4959 patients age 65 and older with acute MI and AF who underwent coronary stenting.
More patients were discharged on DAPT (72.4%) than on triple therapy (27.6%), the researchers report in the August 11 issue of the Journal of the American College of Cardiology (JACC), available online now.
The primary effectiveness outcome, major adverse cardiac events (MACE, including death or readmission for MI or stroke) at two years, did not differ in incidence between triple therapy (32.6%) and DAPT (32.7%), and there were no significant differences in the incidences of the individual MACE components.
In contrast, the cumulative incidence of bleeding requiring hospitalization within two years of discharge was significantly higher for patients on triple therapy (17.6%) than for patients on DAPT (11.0%; p<0.0001), and this difference persisted after adjustment for case-mix, treatment, and hospital features.
Triple therapy was also associated with a 2.04-fold higher risk of intracranial hemorrhage, compared with DAPT.
The association of triple therapy with MACE and bleeding outcomes was similar for patients older and younger than 75, for men and women, for patients with low and high predicted stroke risk, for patients with shorter versus longer duration of AF, for patients treated with drug-eluting versus bare-metal stents, and for patients presenting with non-ST-segment elevation MI versus ST-segment elevation MI.
"Until we have data from prospective studies to define optimal antithrombotic use in older patients with myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation, providers should be especially mindful of an individual's bleeding risk when deciding to prescribe triple therapy," Dr. Hess concluded.
Dr. John C. Messenger, from the University of Colorado School of Medicine, Aurora, cowrote an editorial related to this report. He told Reuters Health by email, "We should ideally look to minimize duration of triple therapy, keeping it as short as possible. We also need to enroll patients in trials designed to evaluate double therapy without the use of aspirin."
"With the change in guidelines recommending oral anticoagulation for patients with atrial fibrillation at lower risk for ischemic stroke, the negative impact of bleeding related to the use of triple therapy may far outweigh the benefit of reduction of ischemic stroke," Dr. Messenger said. "We obviously need further study on this topic."
Dr. Andrea Rubboli, from Ospedale Maggiore, Bologna, Italy, has researched how best to treat these patients. He told Reuters Health by email, "Given that I practice in Europe, where current guidelines recommend triple therapy for these patients, what I found most surprising is the relatively small proportion of AF patients treated with (percutaneous coronary intervention) PCI who were discharged on triple therapy. Conversely, it was not surprising that DAPT was comparable to triple therapy in terms of MACE and superior in terms of bleeding because this has been previously reported and the several limitations of this kind of analysis (especially the lack of information on the therapy really ongoing at the time of event) may account for that."
"Triple therapy confirmed to be the best treatment for these patients," Dr. Rubboli concluded. "While not reducing MACE versus DAPT, it is indeed significantly more effective in reducing the most feared and devastating complication of AF, that is, stroke. Given the increased risk of bleeding, however, great care should be put in monitoring such therapy."
Dr. Nikolaus Sarafoff, from Ludwig-Maximilians University, Munich, Germany, told Reuters Health by email, "In my opinion, one major limitation of the study is that only 7.7% of patients in the DAPT group were on oral anticoagulation (OAC) at randomization as compared to 62.1% in the triple arm. This shows clearly that physicians felt that patients in the DAPT arm had no real indication for OAC (even before the myocardial infarction with PCI occurred) and this makes the comparison of the two groups very difficult."
"The indication for triple therapy and the optimal antithrombotic treatment should be taken carefully, weighing the bleeding and the ischemic risk of the patient," Dr. Sarafoff concluded. "Several options to reduce bleeding complications in this high-risk population exist, such as omitting aspirin, shortening the duration of therapy. The results of the present study cannot supplant current guidelines that state clearly that patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc Score 2 are in need of OAC no matter whether concomitant antiplatelet therapy is needed."
The American College of Cardiology Foundation's National Cardiovascular Data Registry supported this study. Three coauthors reported relevant relationships.
How malaria increases the risk of Burkitt lymphoma
Image by Ed Uthman
A link between malaria and Burkitt lymphoma was first described more than 50 years ago, but how the parasitic infection promotes lymphomagenesis has remained a mystery.
Now, research in mice has revealed that B-cell DNA becomes vulnerable to cancer-causing mutations during prolonged combat against the malaria parasite.
Davide Robbiani, MD, PhD, of The Rockefeller University in New York, New York, and his colleagues described this research in Cell.
The team infected mice with the malaria parasite Plasmodium chabaudi and, immediately, the mice experienced an increase in germinal center (GC) B lymphocytes, which can give rise to Burkitt lymphoma.
“In malaria-infected mice, these cells divide very rapidly over the course of months,” Dr Robbiani said.
As the GC B lymphocytes proliferate, they also express high levels of activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID), which induces mutations in their DNA. As a result, these cells can diversify to generate a wide range of antibodies.
But in addition to beneficial mutations in antibody genes, AID can cause off-target damage and shuffling of cancer-causing genes.
“In mice infected with the malaria parasite, these so-called chromosomal rearrangements occur very frequently in GC lymphocytes,” Dr Robbiani said. “And at least some of the changes are due to AID.”
To further investigate this phenomenon, the researchers bred mice lacking the p53 gene, which is known to protect cells from Burkitt lymphoma. All of the mice that expressed AID but not p53 ultimately developed lymphoma.
And when these mice were infected with the malaria parasite, they developed lymphomas specifically in mature B cells, similar to what happens in Burkitt lymphoma.
“This finding sheds new light on a long-standing mystery of why two seemingly different diseases are associated with each other,” Dr Robbiani said.
Researchers are now attempting to determine how AID causes its off-target damage to DNA, which could lead to new treatments.
“If we could somehow limit this collateral damage to cancer-causing genes without reducing the infection-fighting powers of B cells, that could be very useful,” Dr Robbiani said. “But first, we have to find out how the collateral DNA damage occurs in the first place.”
Dr Robbiani noted that hepatitis C virus and Helicobacter pylori infections, as well as some autoimmune diseases, are also linked with
chronic B lymphocyte activation and an increased risk of lymphoma.
Therefore,
strategies aimed at reducing unintended DNA damage caused by AID might
also help reduce the risk of lymphoma in patients with these conditions.
“It’s possible that AID also plays a role in the association between these other infections and cancer,” Dr Robbiani said. “This is purely a speculation at this point, though highly suggestive.”
Image by Ed Uthman
A link between malaria and Burkitt lymphoma was first described more than 50 years ago, but how the parasitic infection promotes lymphomagenesis has remained a mystery.
Now, research in mice has revealed that B-cell DNA becomes vulnerable to cancer-causing mutations during prolonged combat against the malaria parasite.
Davide Robbiani, MD, PhD, of The Rockefeller University in New York, New York, and his colleagues described this research in Cell.
The team infected mice with the malaria parasite Plasmodium chabaudi and, immediately, the mice experienced an increase in germinal center (GC) B lymphocytes, which can give rise to Burkitt lymphoma.
“In malaria-infected mice, these cells divide very rapidly over the course of months,” Dr Robbiani said.
As the GC B lymphocytes proliferate, they also express high levels of activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID), which induces mutations in their DNA. As a result, these cells can diversify to generate a wide range of antibodies.
But in addition to beneficial mutations in antibody genes, AID can cause off-target damage and shuffling of cancer-causing genes.
“In mice infected with the malaria parasite, these so-called chromosomal rearrangements occur very frequently in GC lymphocytes,” Dr Robbiani said. “And at least some of the changes are due to AID.”
To further investigate this phenomenon, the researchers bred mice lacking the p53 gene, which is known to protect cells from Burkitt lymphoma. All of the mice that expressed AID but not p53 ultimately developed lymphoma.
And when these mice were infected with the malaria parasite, they developed lymphomas specifically in mature B cells, similar to what happens in Burkitt lymphoma.
“This finding sheds new light on a long-standing mystery of why two seemingly different diseases are associated with each other,” Dr Robbiani said.
Researchers are now attempting to determine how AID causes its off-target damage to DNA, which could lead to new treatments.
“If we could somehow limit this collateral damage to cancer-causing genes without reducing the infection-fighting powers of B cells, that could be very useful,” Dr Robbiani said. “But first, we have to find out how the collateral DNA damage occurs in the first place.”
Dr Robbiani noted that hepatitis C virus and Helicobacter pylori infections, as well as some autoimmune diseases, are also linked with
chronic B lymphocyte activation and an increased risk of lymphoma.
Therefore,
strategies aimed at reducing unintended DNA damage caused by AID might
also help reduce the risk of lymphoma in patients with these conditions.
“It’s possible that AID also plays a role in the association between these other infections and cancer,” Dr Robbiani said. “This is purely a speculation at this point, though highly suggestive.”
Image by Ed Uthman
A link between malaria and Burkitt lymphoma was first described more than 50 years ago, but how the parasitic infection promotes lymphomagenesis has remained a mystery.
Now, research in mice has revealed that B-cell DNA becomes vulnerable to cancer-causing mutations during prolonged combat against the malaria parasite.
Davide Robbiani, MD, PhD, of The Rockefeller University in New York, New York, and his colleagues described this research in Cell.
The team infected mice with the malaria parasite Plasmodium chabaudi and, immediately, the mice experienced an increase in germinal center (GC) B lymphocytes, which can give rise to Burkitt lymphoma.
“In malaria-infected mice, these cells divide very rapidly over the course of months,” Dr Robbiani said.
As the GC B lymphocytes proliferate, they also express high levels of activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID), which induces mutations in their DNA. As a result, these cells can diversify to generate a wide range of antibodies.
But in addition to beneficial mutations in antibody genes, AID can cause off-target damage and shuffling of cancer-causing genes.
“In mice infected with the malaria parasite, these so-called chromosomal rearrangements occur very frequently in GC lymphocytes,” Dr Robbiani said. “And at least some of the changes are due to AID.”
To further investigate this phenomenon, the researchers bred mice lacking the p53 gene, which is known to protect cells from Burkitt lymphoma. All of the mice that expressed AID but not p53 ultimately developed lymphoma.
And when these mice were infected with the malaria parasite, they developed lymphomas specifically in mature B cells, similar to what happens in Burkitt lymphoma.
“This finding sheds new light on a long-standing mystery of why two seemingly different diseases are associated with each other,” Dr Robbiani said.
Researchers are now attempting to determine how AID causes its off-target damage to DNA, which could lead to new treatments.
“If we could somehow limit this collateral damage to cancer-causing genes without reducing the infection-fighting powers of B cells, that could be very useful,” Dr Robbiani said. “But first, we have to find out how the collateral DNA damage occurs in the first place.”
Dr Robbiani noted that hepatitis C virus and Helicobacter pylori infections, as well as some autoimmune diseases, are also linked with
chronic B lymphocyte activation and an increased risk of lymphoma.
Therefore,
strategies aimed at reducing unintended DNA damage caused by AID might
also help reduce the risk of lymphoma in patients with these conditions.
“It’s possible that AID also plays a role in the association between these other infections and cancer,” Dr Robbiani said. “This is purely a speculation at this point, though highly suggestive.”
Remember ‘CURE’ indication for clopidogrel in ACS
ESTES PARK, COLO. – Clopidogrel is vastly underutilized in real-world medical management of patients with unstable angina or non–ST-segment elevation MI who don’t undergo coronary revascularization, Dr. Mel L. Anderson said at a conference on internal medicine sponsored by the University of Colorado.
Such patients fall under the umbrella of the so-called CURE indication for clopidogrel, named for the landmark Clopidogrel in Unstable Angina to Prevent Recurrent Events trial. CURE showed that adding clopidogrel to aspirin for an average of 9 months in patients with acute coronary syndrome without ST-segment elevation reduced the major adverse cardiovascular event rate from 11.4% to 9.3% (N Engl J Med. 2001;345[7]:494-502).
Clinical practice has changed enormously since CURE was published in 2001, so a group of investigators decided to see if discharging medically managed ACS patients on clopidogrel is still beneficial in the contemporary setting. They conducted a retrospective observational cohort study of 16,345 Kaiser Permanente Northern California patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI managed medically without percutaneous coronary intervention or coronary artery bypass graft, of whom only 36% were discharged on clopidogrel.
“It’s disappointing that fully two-thirds of patients did not get clopidogrel when they had an indication for it,” commented Dr. Anderson, chief of the hospital medicine section at the Denver VA Medical Center and an internist at the university.
Two-year all-cause mortality was 8.3% in the clopidogrel users, compared with 13% in propensity-matched controls not on clopidogrel, for an adjusted 37% relative risk reduction in favor of the antiplatelet agent (J Am Coll Cardiol. 2014 Jun 3;63[21]:2249-57).
“That’s a number-needed-to-treat of 20. It’s really quite a robust benefit for a drug that’s now generic and has a well-established safety profile,” Dr. Anderson continued.
The 2-year composite outcome of death or MI occurred in 13.5% of the clopidogrel group and 17.4% of controls, for a number-needed-to-treat of about 25. Clopidogrel’s benefit in terms of this composite endpoint achieved significance only among the 65% of participants with NSTEMI, not those with unstable angina.
“Don’t forget the CURE indication for clopidogrel,” the hospitalist concluded.
ESTES PARK, COLO. – Clopidogrel is vastly underutilized in real-world medical management of patients with unstable angina or non–ST-segment elevation MI who don’t undergo coronary revascularization, Dr. Mel L. Anderson said at a conference on internal medicine sponsored by the University of Colorado.
Such patients fall under the umbrella of the so-called CURE indication for clopidogrel, named for the landmark Clopidogrel in Unstable Angina to Prevent Recurrent Events trial. CURE showed that adding clopidogrel to aspirin for an average of 9 months in patients with acute coronary syndrome without ST-segment elevation reduced the major adverse cardiovascular event rate from 11.4% to 9.3% (N Engl J Med. 2001;345[7]:494-502).
Clinical practice has changed enormously since CURE was published in 2001, so a group of investigators decided to see if discharging medically managed ACS patients on clopidogrel is still beneficial in the contemporary setting. They conducted a retrospective observational cohort study of 16,345 Kaiser Permanente Northern California patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI managed medically without percutaneous coronary intervention or coronary artery bypass graft, of whom only 36% were discharged on clopidogrel.
“It’s disappointing that fully two-thirds of patients did not get clopidogrel when they had an indication for it,” commented Dr. Anderson, chief of the hospital medicine section at the Denver VA Medical Center and an internist at the university.
Two-year all-cause mortality was 8.3% in the clopidogrel users, compared with 13% in propensity-matched controls not on clopidogrel, for an adjusted 37% relative risk reduction in favor of the antiplatelet agent (J Am Coll Cardiol. 2014 Jun 3;63[21]:2249-57).
“That’s a number-needed-to-treat of 20. It’s really quite a robust benefit for a drug that’s now generic and has a well-established safety profile,” Dr. Anderson continued.
The 2-year composite outcome of death or MI occurred in 13.5% of the clopidogrel group and 17.4% of controls, for a number-needed-to-treat of about 25. Clopidogrel’s benefit in terms of this composite endpoint achieved significance only among the 65% of participants with NSTEMI, not those with unstable angina.
“Don’t forget the CURE indication for clopidogrel,” the hospitalist concluded.
ESTES PARK, COLO. – Clopidogrel is vastly underutilized in real-world medical management of patients with unstable angina or non–ST-segment elevation MI who don’t undergo coronary revascularization, Dr. Mel L. Anderson said at a conference on internal medicine sponsored by the University of Colorado.
Such patients fall under the umbrella of the so-called CURE indication for clopidogrel, named for the landmark Clopidogrel in Unstable Angina to Prevent Recurrent Events trial. CURE showed that adding clopidogrel to aspirin for an average of 9 months in patients with acute coronary syndrome without ST-segment elevation reduced the major adverse cardiovascular event rate from 11.4% to 9.3% (N Engl J Med. 2001;345[7]:494-502).
Clinical practice has changed enormously since CURE was published in 2001, so a group of investigators decided to see if discharging medically managed ACS patients on clopidogrel is still beneficial in the contemporary setting. They conducted a retrospective observational cohort study of 16,345 Kaiser Permanente Northern California patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI managed medically without percutaneous coronary intervention or coronary artery bypass graft, of whom only 36% were discharged on clopidogrel.
“It’s disappointing that fully two-thirds of patients did not get clopidogrel when they had an indication for it,” commented Dr. Anderson, chief of the hospital medicine section at the Denver VA Medical Center and an internist at the university.
Two-year all-cause mortality was 8.3% in the clopidogrel users, compared with 13% in propensity-matched controls not on clopidogrel, for an adjusted 37% relative risk reduction in favor of the antiplatelet agent (J Am Coll Cardiol. 2014 Jun 3;63[21]:2249-57).
“That’s a number-needed-to-treat of 20. It’s really quite a robust benefit for a drug that’s now generic and has a well-established safety profile,” Dr. Anderson continued.
The 2-year composite outcome of death or MI occurred in 13.5% of the clopidogrel group and 17.4% of controls, for a number-needed-to-treat of about 25. Clopidogrel’s benefit in terms of this composite endpoint achieved significance only among the 65% of participants with NSTEMI, not those with unstable angina.
“Don’t forget the CURE indication for clopidogrel,” the hospitalist concluded.
EXPERT ANALYSIS FROM THE ANNUAL INTERNAL MEDICINE PROGRAM
Algorithm can enhance clustering, aid trial design
Chenyue Wendy Hu
Photo courtesy of Jeff Fitlow
and Rice University
A newly developed algorithm for “big data” could have a significant impact on clinical trials, according to researchers.
The algorithm, called progeny clustering, was the only method to successfully reveal “clinically meaningful” groupings of proteomic data from patients with acute myeloid leukemia.
And the algorithm is currently being used in a hospital study to identify optimal treatment for children with leukemia.
Details on progeny clustering have been published in Scientific Reports.
The authors noted that clustering is important for its ability to reveal information in complex sets of data like medical records.
“Doctors who design clinical trials need to know how to group patients so they receive the most appropriate treatment,” said author Amina Qutub, PhD, of Rice University in Houston, Texas. “First, they need to estimate the optimal number of clusters in their data.”
The more accurate the clusters, the more personalized the treatment can be, Dr Qutub said. She added that separating groups by a single data point would be easy, but when separating patients by the types of proteins in their bloodstreams, for example, it becomes more difficult.
“That’s the kind of data that’s become prevalent everywhere in biology, and it’s good to have,” Dr Qutub said. “We want to know hundreds of features about a single person. The problem is identifying how to use all that data.”
Progeny clustering provides a way to ensure the number of clusters is as accurate as possible, Dr Qutub said. The algorithm extracts characteristics about patients from a data set, mixing and matching them randomly to create artificial populations—the “progeny” of the parent data. The characteristics appear in roughly the same ratios in the progeny as they do among the parents.
These characteristics, called dimensions, can be anything: as simple as hair color or place of birth, or as detailed as blood cell count or the proteins expressed by tumor cells. For even a small population, each individual may have hundreds or thousands of dimensions.
By creating progeny with the same dimensions of features, the algorithm increases the size of the data set. With this additional data, the distinct patterns become more apparent, allowing the algorithm to optimize the number of clusters that warrant attention from doctors and researchers.
Dr Qutub said this technique is just as reliable as state-of-the-art clustering evaluation algorithms, but at a fraction of the computational cost. In lab tests, progeny clustering compared favorably to other popular methods.
And it was the only method to provide clinically meaningful groupings in an acute myeloid leukemia reverse-phase protein array data set.
Progeny clustering also allows researchers to determine the ideal number of clusters in small populations, Dr Qutub noted.
The algorithm was used to design an ongoing trial involving leukemia patients at Texas Children’s Hospital.
“Progeny clustering allowed them to design a robust clinical trial, even though that trial did not involve a large number of children,” Dr Qutub said. “It meant they didn’t have to wait to enroll more.”
Dr Qutub added that the algorithm could apply to any data set.
“We could just as easily use it for a population of voters to see who should get campaign materials from a candidate,” she said. “Progeny clustering has a lot of possible applications.”
Dr Qutub and her colleagues plan to make the algorithm available for free on her lab’s website.
Chenyue Wendy Hu
Photo courtesy of Jeff Fitlow
and Rice University
A newly developed algorithm for “big data” could have a significant impact on clinical trials, according to researchers.
The algorithm, called progeny clustering, was the only method to successfully reveal “clinically meaningful” groupings of proteomic data from patients with acute myeloid leukemia.
And the algorithm is currently being used in a hospital study to identify optimal treatment for children with leukemia.
Details on progeny clustering have been published in Scientific Reports.
The authors noted that clustering is important for its ability to reveal information in complex sets of data like medical records.
“Doctors who design clinical trials need to know how to group patients so they receive the most appropriate treatment,” said author Amina Qutub, PhD, of Rice University in Houston, Texas. “First, they need to estimate the optimal number of clusters in their data.”
The more accurate the clusters, the more personalized the treatment can be, Dr Qutub said. She added that separating groups by a single data point would be easy, but when separating patients by the types of proteins in their bloodstreams, for example, it becomes more difficult.
“That’s the kind of data that’s become prevalent everywhere in biology, and it’s good to have,” Dr Qutub said. “We want to know hundreds of features about a single person. The problem is identifying how to use all that data.”
Progeny clustering provides a way to ensure the number of clusters is as accurate as possible, Dr Qutub said. The algorithm extracts characteristics about patients from a data set, mixing and matching them randomly to create artificial populations—the “progeny” of the parent data. The characteristics appear in roughly the same ratios in the progeny as they do among the parents.
These characteristics, called dimensions, can be anything: as simple as hair color or place of birth, or as detailed as blood cell count or the proteins expressed by tumor cells. For even a small population, each individual may have hundreds or thousands of dimensions.
By creating progeny with the same dimensions of features, the algorithm increases the size of the data set. With this additional data, the distinct patterns become more apparent, allowing the algorithm to optimize the number of clusters that warrant attention from doctors and researchers.
Dr Qutub said this technique is just as reliable as state-of-the-art clustering evaluation algorithms, but at a fraction of the computational cost. In lab tests, progeny clustering compared favorably to other popular methods.
And it was the only method to provide clinically meaningful groupings in an acute myeloid leukemia reverse-phase protein array data set.
Progeny clustering also allows researchers to determine the ideal number of clusters in small populations, Dr Qutub noted.
The algorithm was used to design an ongoing trial involving leukemia patients at Texas Children’s Hospital.
“Progeny clustering allowed them to design a robust clinical trial, even though that trial did not involve a large number of children,” Dr Qutub said. “It meant they didn’t have to wait to enroll more.”
Dr Qutub added that the algorithm could apply to any data set.
“We could just as easily use it for a population of voters to see who should get campaign materials from a candidate,” she said. “Progeny clustering has a lot of possible applications.”
Dr Qutub and her colleagues plan to make the algorithm available for free on her lab’s website.
Chenyue Wendy Hu
Photo courtesy of Jeff Fitlow
and Rice University
A newly developed algorithm for “big data” could have a significant impact on clinical trials, according to researchers.
The algorithm, called progeny clustering, was the only method to successfully reveal “clinically meaningful” groupings of proteomic data from patients with acute myeloid leukemia.
And the algorithm is currently being used in a hospital study to identify optimal treatment for children with leukemia.
Details on progeny clustering have been published in Scientific Reports.
The authors noted that clustering is important for its ability to reveal information in complex sets of data like medical records.
“Doctors who design clinical trials need to know how to group patients so they receive the most appropriate treatment,” said author Amina Qutub, PhD, of Rice University in Houston, Texas. “First, they need to estimate the optimal number of clusters in their data.”
The more accurate the clusters, the more personalized the treatment can be, Dr Qutub said. She added that separating groups by a single data point would be easy, but when separating patients by the types of proteins in their bloodstreams, for example, it becomes more difficult.
“That’s the kind of data that’s become prevalent everywhere in biology, and it’s good to have,” Dr Qutub said. “We want to know hundreds of features about a single person. The problem is identifying how to use all that data.”
Progeny clustering provides a way to ensure the number of clusters is as accurate as possible, Dr Qutub said. The algorithm extracts characteristics about patients from a data set, mixing and matching them randomly to create artificial populations—the “progeny” of the parent data. The characteristics appear in roughly the same ratios in the progeny as they do among the parents.
These characteristics, called dimensions, can be anything: as simple as hair color or place of birth, or as detailed as blood cell count or the proteins expressed by tumor cells. For even a small population, each individual may have hundreds or thousands of dimensions.
By creating progeny with the same dimensions of features, the algorithm increases the size of the data set. With this additional data, the distinct patterns become more apparent, allowing the algorithm to optimize the number of clusters that warrant attention from doctors and researchers.
Dr Qutub said this technique is just as reliable as state-of-the-art clustering evaluation algorithms, but at a fraction of the computational cost. In lab tests, progeny clustering compared favorably to other popular methods.
And it was the only method to provide clinically meaningful groupings in an acute myeloid leukemia reverse-phase protein array data set.
Progeny clustering also allows researchers to determine the ideal number of clusters in small populations, Dr Qutub noted.
The algorithm was used to design an ongoing trial involving leukemia patients at Texas Children’s Hospital.
“Progeny clustering allowed them to design a robust clinical trial, even though that trial did not involve a large number of children,” Dr Qutub said. “It meant they didn’t have to wait to enroll more.”
Dr Qutub added that the algorithm could apply to any data set.
“We could just as easily use it for a population of voters to see who should get campaign materials from a candidate,” she said. “Progeny clustering has a lot of possible applications.”
Dr Qutub and her colleagues plan to make the algorithm available for free on her lab’s website.
Nanoparticle-based vaccine could prevent EBV
Photo by Sakura Midori
Researchers say they have developed a nanoparticle-based vaccine against Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) that can induce potent neutralizing antibodies in mice and monkeys.
These results suggest that using a structure-based vaccine design and self-assembling nanoparticles to deliver a viral protein that prompts an immune response could be a promising approach for developing an EBV vaccine for humans.
Most efforts to develop a preventive EBV vaccine have focused on glycoprotein 350 (gp350), a molecule on the surface of EBV that helps the virus attach to B cells. EBV gp350 is thought to be a key target for antibodies capable of preventing viral infection.
Previously, researchers showed that vaccinating monkeys with gp350 protected the animals from developing lymphomas after exposure to a high dose of EBV.
However, in the only large human trial of an experimental EBV vaccine conducted to date, the EBV gp350 vaccine did not prevent EBV infection, although it did reduce the rate of infectious mononucleosis by 78%.
With this in mind, Masaru Kanekiyo, DVM, PhD, of the National Institutes of Health in Bethesda, Maryland, and his colleagues set out to create a better vaccine.
They described their work in a paper published in Cell.
The team designed a nanoparticle-based vaccine that expressed the cell-binding portion of gp350. In tests, the experimental vaccine induced potent neutralizing antibodies in both mice and cynomolgus macaques (Macaca fascicularis).
In fact, compared with soluble gp350, the nanoparticle-based vaccine induced 10- to 100-fold higher levels of neutralizing antibodies in mice.
The researchers believe the nanoparticle vaccine design could be used to create or redesign vaccines against other pathogens as well.
Photo by Sakura Midori
Researchers say they have developed a nanoparticle-based vaccine against Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) that can induce potent neutralizing antibodies in mice and monkeys.
These results suggest that using a structure-based vaccine design and self-assembling nanoparticles to deliver a viral protein that prompts an immune response could be a promising approach for developing an EBV vaccine for humans.
Most efforts to develop a preventive EBV vaccine have focused on glycoprotein 350 (gp350), a molecule on the surface of EBV that helps the virus attach to B cells. EBV gp350 is thought to be a key target for antibodies capable of preventing viral infection.
Previously, researchers showed that vaccinating monkeys with gp350 protected the animals from developing lymphomas after exposure to a high dose of EBV.
However, in the only large human trial of an experimental EBV vaccine conducted to date, the EBV gp350 vaccine did not prevent EBV infection, although it did reduce the rate of infectious mononucleosis by 78%.
With this in mind, Masaru Kanekiyo, DVM, PhD, of the National Institutes of Health in Bethesda, Maryland, and his colleagues set out to create a better vaccine.
They described their work in a paper published in Cell.
The team designed a nanoparticle-based vaccine that expressed the cell-binding portion of gp350. In tests, the experimental vaccine induced potent neutralizing antibodies in both mice and cynomolgus macaques (Macaca fascicularis).
In fact, compared with soluble gp350, the nanoparticle-based vaccine induced 10- to 100-fold higher levels of neutralizing antibodies in mice.
The researchers believe the nanoparticle vaccine design could be used to create or redesign vaccines against other pathogens as well.
Photo by Sakura Midori
Researchers say they have developed a nanoparticle-based vaccine against Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) that can induce potent neutralizing antibodies in mice and monkeys.
These results suggest that using a structure-based vaccine design and self-assembling nanoparticles to deliver a viral protein that prompts an immune response could be a promising approach for developing an EBV vaccine for humans.
Most efforts to develop a preventive EBV vaccine have focused on glycoprotein 350 (gp350), a molecule on the surface of EBV that helps the virus attach to B cells. EBV gp350 is thought to be a key target for antibodies capable of preventing viral infection.
Previously, researchers showed that vaccinating monkeys with gp350 protected the animals from developing lymphomas after exposure to a high dose of EBV.
However, in the only large human trial of an experimental EBV vaccine conducted to date, the EBV gp350 vaccine did not prevent EBV infection, although it did reduce the rate of infectious mononucleosis by 78%.
With this in mind, Masaru Kanekiyo, DVM, PhD, of the National Institutes of Health in Bethesda, Maryland, and his colleagues set out to create a better vaccine.
They described their work in a paper published in Cell.
The team designed a nanoparticle-based vaccine that expressed the cell-binding portion of gp350. In tests, the experimental vaccine induced potent neutralizing antibodies in both mice and cynomolgus macaques (Macaca fascicularis).
In fact, compared with soluble gp350, the nanoparticle-based vaccine induced 10- to 100-fold higher levels of neutralizing antibodies in mice.
The researchers believe the nanoparticle vaccine design could be used to create or redesign vaccines against other pathogens as well.
Tool that lets patients report AEs proves reliable
receiving chemotherapy
Photo by Rhoda Baer
Results of a multicenter study indicate that a tool cancer patients can use to report adverse events (AEs) is as accurate as other, established patient-reported and clinical measures.
The tool is the National Cancer Institute’s Patient Reported Outcomes version of the Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (PRO-CTCAE).
Study investigators were able to validate 119 of 124 PRO-CTCAE questions against 2 established measurement tools.
The 5 questions that were not validated could not be evaluated due to underrepresentation in the study population.
This research was published in JAMA Oncology.
“In most cancer clinical trials, information on side effects is collected by providers who have limited time with their patients, and current patient questionnaires are limited in scope and depth,” said study author Amylou Dueck, PhD, of the Mayo Clinic in Scottsdale, Arizona.
“PRO-CTCAE is a library of items for patients to directly report on the level of each of their symptoms, to enhance the reporting of side effects in cancer clinical trials, which is normally based on information from providers. The study itself is unprecedented, as more than 100 distinct questions about symptomatic adverse events were validated simultaneously.”
To assess the PRO-CTCAE, Dr Dueck and her colleagues recruited 975 cancer patients from 9 clinical practices across the US, including 7 cancer centers.
The patients had a range of cancers and were undergoing outpatient chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy. The investigators said these participants reflected the geographic, ethnic, racial, and economic diversity in cancer clinical trials.
The patients were asked to fill out the PRO-CTCAE questionnaire before appointments. The investigators then compared patient reports to clinician-reported Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status and the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer Core Quality of Life Questionnaire (QLQ-C30).
A majority of patients completed items on the PRO-CTCAE questionnaire at their first visit (96.4%, 940/975) and second visit (90.6%, 852/940).
Most patients (99.8%, 938/940) reported having at least 1 symptomatic AE, with 81.7% (768/940) reporting at least 1 AE as frequent, severe, and/or interfering “quite a bit” with daily activities.
To gauge the accuracy of the PRO-CTCAE, the investigators assessed construct validity, test-retest reliability, and responsiveness of PRO-CTCAE items.
Construct validity
The investigators explained that construct validity reflects the association between a new measurement tool and an established measure.
Construct validity is often investigated through convergent validity, which determines whether the new tool moves in the same direction as an established instrument, and known-groups validity, which determines whether the tool can distinguish between groups of patients who are thought to be distinct.
When the investigators considered all QLQ-C30 functioning/global scales, they found that all 124 items on the PRO-CTCAE questionnaire were associated in the expected direction with 1 or more scales. One hundred and fourteen of the PRO-CTCAE items demonstrated a meaningful correlation (Pearson r≥0.1), and 111 of them were statistically significant (P<0.05 for all).
Scores for 94 of 124 PRO-CTCAE items were higher among patients with an ECOG performance status of 2 to 4 (17.1% of patients) than among patients with a score of 0 to 1. The difference was significant for 58 of the items (P<0.05 for all).
Test-retest reliability and responsiveness
The investigators said they estimated test-retest reliability using the intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC), based on a 1-way analysis of variance model with an ICC of 0.7 or greater interpreted as high.
Test-retest reliability was 0.7 or greater for 36 of 49 prespecified PRO-CTCAE items. The median ICC was 0.76 [range, 0.53-0.96).
The investigators assessed the responsiveness of PRO-CTCAE items by comparing any change from the first visit to the second visit in 27 items that were selected a priori.
Correlations between PRO-CTCAE item changes and corresponding QLQ-C30 scale changes were significant for all 27 items (P≤0.006 for all).
“This is a landmark study demonstrating that meaningful information about adverse events can be elicited from patients themselves, which is a major step for advancing the patient-centeredness of clinical trials,” said study author Ethan Basch, MD, of the Lineberger Cancer Center of the University of North Carolina in Chapel Hill.
receiving chemotherapy
Photo by Rhoda Baer
Results of a multicenter study indicate that a tool cancer patients can use to report adverse events (AEs) is as accurate as other, established patient-reported and clinical measures.
The tool is the National Cancer Institute’s Patient Reported Outcomes version of the Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (PRO-CTCAE).
Study investigators were able to validate 119 of 124 PRO-CTCAE questions against 2 established measurement tools.
The 5 questions that were not validated could not be evaluated due to underrepresentation in the study population.
This research was published in JAMA Oncology.
“In most cancer clinical trials, information on side effects is collected by providers who have limited time with their patients, and current patient questionnaires are limited in scope and depth,” said study author Amylou Dueck, PhD, of the Mayo Clinic in Scottsdale, Arizona.
“PRO-CTCAE is a library of items for patients to directly report on the level of each of their symptoms, to enhance the reporting of side effects in cancer clinical trials, which is normally based on information from providers. The study itself is unprecedented, as more than 100 distinct questions about symptomatic adverse events were validated simultaneously.”
To assess the PRO-CTCAE, Dr Dueck and her colleagues recruited 975 cancer patients from 9 clinical practices across the US, including 7 cancer centers.
The patients had a range of cancers and were undergoing outpatient chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy. The investigators said these participants reflected the geographic, ethnic, racial, and economic diversity in cancer clinical trials.
The patients were asked to fill out the PRO-CTCAE questionnaire before appointments. The investigators then compared patient reports to clinician-reported Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status and the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer Core Quality of Life Questionnaire (QLQ-C30).
A majority of patients completed items on the PRO-CTCAE questionnaire at their first visit (96.4%, 940/975) and second visit (90.6%, 852/940).
Most patients (99.8%, 938/940) reported having at least 1 symptomatic AE, with 81.7% (768/940) reporting at least 1 AE as frequent, severe, and/or interfering “quite a bit” with daily activities.
To gauge the accuracy of the PRO-CTCAE, the investigators assessed construct validity, test-retest reliability, and responsiveness of PRO-CTCAE items.
Construct validity
The investigators explained that construct validity reflects the association between a new measurement tool and an established measure.
Construct validity is often investigated through convergent validity, which determines whether the new tool moves in the same direction as an established instrument, and known-groups validity, which determines whether the tool can distinguish between groups of patients who are thought to be distinct.
When the investigators considered all QLQ-C30 functioning/global scales, they found that all 124 items on the PRO-CTCAE questionnaire were associated in the expected direction with 1 or more scales. One hundred and fourteen of the PRO-CTCAE items demonstrated a meaningful correlation (Pearson r≥0.1), and 111 of them were statistically significant (P<0.05 for all).
Scores for 94 of 124 PRO-CTCAE items were higher among patients with an ECOG performance status of 2 to 4 (17.1% of patients) than among patients with a score of 0 to 1. The difference was significant for 58 of the items (P<0.05 for all).
Test-retest reliability and responsiveness
The investigators said they estimated test-retest reliability using the intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC), based on a 1-way analysis of variance model with an ICC of 0.7 or greater interpreted as high.
Test-retest reliability was 0.7 or greater for 36 of 49 prespecified PRO-CTCAE items. The median ICC was 0.76 [range, 0.53-0.96).
The investigators assessed the responsiveness of PRO-CTCAE items by comparing any change from the first visit to the second visit in 27 items that were selected a priori.
Correlations between PRO-CTCAE item changes and corresponding QLQ-C30 scale changes were significant for all 27 items (P≤0.006 for all).
“This is a landmark study demonstrating that meaningful information about adverse events can be elicited from patients themselves, which is a major step for advancing the patient-centeredness of clinical trials,” said study author Ethan Basch, MD, of the Lineberger Cancer Center of the University of North Carolina in Chapel Hill.
receiving chemotherapy
Photo by Rhoda Baer
Results of a multicenter study indicate that a tool cancer patients can use to report adverse events (AEs) is as accurate as other, established patient-reported and clinical measures.
The tool is the National Cancer Institute’s Patient Reported Outcomes version of the Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (PRO-CTCAE).
Study investigators were able to validate 119 of 124 PRO-CTCAE questions against 2 established measurement tools.
The 5 questions that were not validated could not be evaluated due to underrepresentation in the study population.
This research was published in JAMA Oncology.
“In most cancer clinical trials, information on side effects is collected by providers who have limited time with their patients, and current patient questionnaires are limited in scope and depth,” said study author Amylou Dueck, PhD, of the Mayo Clinic in Scottsdale, Arizona.
“PRO-CTCAE is a library of items for patients to directly report on the level of each of their symptoms, to enhance the reporting of side effects in cancer clinical trials, which is normally based on information from providers. The study itself is unprecedented, as more than 100 distinct questions about symptomatic adverse events were validated simultaneously.”
To assess the PRO-CTCAE, Dr Dueck and her colleagues recruited 975 cancer patients from 9 clinical practices across the US, including 7 cancer centers.
The patients had a range of cancers and were undergoing outpatient chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy. The investigators said these participants reflected the geographic, ethnic, racial, and economic diversity in cancer clinical trials.
The patients were asked to fill out the PRO-CTCAE questionnaire before appointments. The investigators then compared patient reports to clinician-reported Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status and the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer Core Quality of Life Questionnaire (QLQ-C30).
A majority of patients completed items on the PRO-CTCAE questionnaire at their first visit (96.4%, 940/975) and second visit (90.6%, 852/940).
Most patients (99.8%, 938/940) reported having at least 1 symptomatic AE, with 81.7% (768/940) reporting at least 1 AE as frequent, severe, and/or interfering “quite a bit” with daily activities.
To gauge the accuracy of the PRO-CTCAE, the investigators assessed construct validity, test-retest reliability, and responsiveness of PRO-CTCAE items.
Construct validity
The investigators explained that construct validity reflects the association between a new measurement tool and an established measure.
Construct validity is often investigated through convergent validity, which determines whether the new tool moves in the same direction as an established instrument, and known-groups validity, which determines whether the tool can distinguish between groups of patients who are thought to be distinct.
When the investigators considered all QLQ-C30 functioning/global scales, they found that all 124 items on the PRO-CTCAE questionnaire were associated in the expected direction with 1 or more scales. One hundred and fourteen of the PRO-CTCAE items demonstrated a meaningful correlation (Pearson r≥0.1), and 111 of them were statistically significant (P<0.05 for all).
Scores for 94 of 124 PRO-CTCAE items were higher among patients with an ECOG performance status of 2 to 4 (17.1% of patients) than among patients with a score of 0 to 1. The difference was significant for 58 of the items (P<0.05 for all).
Test-retest reliability and responsiveness
The investigators said they estimated test-retest reliability using the intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC), based on a 1-way analysis of variance model with an ICC of 0.7 or greater interpreted as high.
Test-retest reliability was 0.7 or greater for 36 of 49 prespecified PRO-CTCAE items. The median ICC was 0.76 [range, 0.53-0.96).
The investigators assessed the responsiveness of PRO-CTCAE items by comparing any change from the first visit to the second visit in 27 items that were selected a priori.
Correlations between PRO-CTCAE item changes and corresponding QLQ-C30 scale changes were significant for all 27 items (P≤0.006 for all).
“This is a landmark study demonstrating that meaningful information about adverse events can be elicited from patients themselves, which is a major step for advancing the patient-centeredness of clinical trials,” said study author Ethan Basch, MD, of the Lineberger Cancer Center of the University of North Carolina in Chapel Hill.
National Acute Medicine Programme
In 2009, Irish hospitals were experiencing ongoing and increasing overcrowding of emergency departments (EDs). This overcrowding and subsequent assessment delays are both associated with increased morbidity and mortality rates.[1, 2, 3, 4] The prevailing culture in many larger hospitals was to prioritize subspecialty care at the expense of the assessment and management of patients with undifferentiated acute medical presentations with nonspecific symptoms. The National Acute Medicine Programme (NAMP) was set up in 2010 by the Royal College of Physicians in Ireland (RCPI) and the Health Service Executive (HSE) to address this unsatisfactory management of acutely ill medical patients.
The objectives of the NAMP are categorized under 3 quality improvement principles: (1) Quality: to improve quality of care and patient safety by ensuring patients are seen by a nurse within 20 minutes and a senior doctor within 1 hour of arrival. (2) Access: to improve access by ensuring that the patient journey from presentation to decision to admit or discharge does not exceed 6 hours and to eliminate extended waiting periods on gurneys for medical patients. (3) Cost: to reduce cost and increase value by achieving bed savings through reduced overnight admissions and shortened lengths of stay.
The program was implemented by a small national team, which included hospital and public health physicians, nurses, a health and social care professional (HSCP), a general practitioner (GP), and a program manager. RCPI also set up a National Advisory Group of Consultant Physicians, comprised of representative medical consultants from all over the country, and key links were established with each acute hospital. The team aimed to develop a standardized model of care for all acutely ill medical patients and ensure its full implementation nationally.
METHODS
A literature review was undertaken to develop the standardized model of care in agreement with stakeholders and in consultation with patient groups.[5] The model of care required the establishment of acute medical assessment units (AMAUs), whose main function was to assess to discharge rather than admit to assess patients.[6, 7] At that time, only 8 of the 33 acute Irish hospitals that admitted medical patients had an AMAU. However, their function and operation varied greatly. In the remaining hospitals, all medical patients went to the ED, and from there were either admitted or discharged. Delays in access to senior clinicians, diagnostics, and allied health professionals such as, Occupational Therapists, Physiotherapists and Speech and Language Therapists often resulted in delays in assessment and treatment that could lead to overnight admissions.
In the new model, all acute medical patients, except those requiring invasive monitoring, critical care, or special services such as oncology and dialysis, are referred to the AMAU by another doctor (ie. a GP, outpatient department, or ED physician), as shown in Figure 1. A senior physician in the AMAU then reviews the patient and decides to admit or discharge. This doctor can either be a dedicated physician with an interest in acute general medicine, or a specialist consultant rostered to work in the unit on a regular basis. Some patients are discharged the same day thanks to prompt review and treatment. Of those requiring overnight admission, some are streamed directly to specialist pathways (eg. coronary care unit). The remaining patients are admitted to the medical short‐stay unit (MSSU) under the care of an acute physician. Patients in the MSSU are then either discharged within 48 hours or go on to be transferred to a specialist ward.
The model of care was therefore divided into 4 care pathways. National Health Service (NHS) admission data for 2008 to 2009 were used to calculate the proportion of patients who flowed through each pathway. The NHS has a wealth of experience in the development and use of AMAUs, having started implementing these units in the early 2000s. Therefore, the NHS estimates calculated above were used to set the national benchmarks for the NAMP. The four pathways are:
1. Ambulatory Care Pathway
Patients receive safe and effective treatment and are discharged on the same day. The NAMP benchmark was that at least 25% of AMAU admissions should follow this pathway of care.
2. Medical Short‐Stay Care Pathway
This pathway was developed for those patients who require inpatient care but are not expected to stay longer than 1 or 2 nights. The program benchmark was that 31% of patients should be discharged within 48 hours.
3. Routine Specialist Inpatient Care Pathway
Approximately 33% of medical admissions are expected to stay more than 2 days and less than 14 days in the hospital and have a straightforward discharge after their acute episode of care. These patients are admitted either directly to specialist medical wards from AMAU or via the MSSU within 2 days of arrival. Care is formally handed over from the AMAU team to the appropriate consultant physician upon transfer.
4. Appropriate Care and Discharge of Complex Patients Care Pathway
Frail older patients have complex care needs that continue following discharge, and their discharge requirements must be identified early during the acute care episode. The NAMP benchmark was that no more than 11% of medical admissions would fall into this pathway and require a length of stay (LoS) exceeding 14 days.
The flow model was used to build system capacity by modeling and predicting the expected demand on each AMAU to assist in forward planning The number of assessment spaces and ward beds required for each hospital were calculated by analyzing respective admission data for 2009 and applying target lengths of stay for medical patients to the flow model. The program team carried out this analysis for each of the 32 hospitals. The model of care also identified a number of practice changes under each pathway that would be required to achieve process changes and the resulting efficiency gains. Table 1 summarizes these.
|
| Ambulatory care pathway |
| Establishment of adequate assessment area |
| National early warning score within 20 minutes |
| Access to senior decision maker within 1 hour |
| Access to rapid diagnostics and HSCP assessment |
| Development of clinical criteria for transfer between ED and AMAU |
| Liaison with discharge planner |
| Clear pathways to specialist wards and community support |
| Close liaison with GP to ensure integrated care |
| Patient experience time in AMAU to be 6 hours or less |
| Medical short‐stay care pathway |
| Establishment of adequate short‐stay unit |
| Access to senior decision maker within 12 hours of transfer from AMAU |
| Twice daily consultant ward rounds |
| Access to prioritized diagnostics and HSCP assessment |
| Integrated discharge planning |
| Routine specialist inpatient care pathway |
| Daily consultant ward rounds |
| Weekend nurse/HSCP‐facilitated discharges |
| Active discharge planning with planned dates of discharge for every patient |
| Liaison with caregivers and community supports |
| Development of clinical criteria to support bidirectional flow to community hospitals within hospital groups |
| Appropriate care and discharge of complex patients care pathway |
| Early assessment and identification of complex patients |
| Streaming to care of the elderly services where appropriate |
| Proactive multidisciplinary discharge planning and liaison with funding agencies for referral to community placements and supports |
Hospitals were also categorized into 4 divisions or models as determined by the complexity of patients they admit. Model 1 hospitals are community units with subacute inpatient beds that can care for patients with rehabilitation, respite, or palliative care needs. Model 2 hospitals are small hospitals that provide inpatient and outpatient care for low‐risk, differentiated medical patients or refer on to associated higher complexity facilities. The majority of hospitals in the country are model 3 general hospitals, admitting 50% of all medical patients. Last, model 4 hospitals are the 8 regional tertiary referral centers in Ireland. A considerable volume of their patient workload remains inpatient admissions for routine specialist inpatient care.
Measuring success in the program's quality and access objectives required the development of a bespoke information technology (IT) system that is not yet operational, and therefore these objectives could not be audited.
A number of outcome measures or key performance indicators (KPIs) were developed to assess performance under each care pathway relative to the cost objectives of the NAMP as shown in Table 2. The available hospital inpatient enquiry (HIPE) data were analyzed by the program team to establish baseline performance metrics for each hospital. Initially, these data were only available to the NAMP 1 year in arrears. However, the NAMP worked with the hospitals and the HIPE system to improve the completeness and timeliness of the HIPE reporting, so that by the third quarter of 2011 monthly data were available. Audit cycles occurred on a continuous monthly basis, with feedback provided to each hospital and follow‐up of results conducted at a local level. This allowed for analysis of performance at a national, hospital group, and individual hospital level. Of note, it was only possible to analyze readmission rates to the same facility in the absence of a national unique patient identifier, and therefore readmission rates observed were of limited use as a quality measure.
| Care Pathway | Metric | National Target | 2010 | 2011 | 2012 | 2013* |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| ||||||
| Ambulatory care pathway | % of patients with LoS=0 | 25% | 11.5% | 12.9% | 18.8% | 23.2% |
| Medical short‐stay pathway | % of patients with LoS 12 days | 31% | 25.4% | 25.9% | 25.6% | 23.8% |
| Routine specialist inpatient pathway | % of patients with LoS>2 days | 44% | 63.1% | 61.2% | 55.6% | 53.1% |
| Complex care pathway | % of patients with LoS>14 days | 11% | 13.1% | 12.4% | 11.0% | 10.8% |
| % BDU of patients with LoS>30 days | 33% | 36.9% | 36.0% | 35.1% | 34.4% | |
| Routine and complex care pathway | Average LoS for those staying >2 days | 610 days | 12.9 | 12.7 | 12.4 | 12.4 |
| Summary metric | Overall average LoS | 5.8 days | 8.5 | 8.1 | 7.2 | 6.9 |
| No. of medical discharges | 202,567 | 206,250 | 235,167 | 253,083 | ||
RESULTS
The NAMP model of care was officially launched in December 2010.[6] Thirty‐two out of the 33 Irish hospitals that admit acute medical patients had adopted the model of care by the end of 2013. The program team performed an initial diagnostic meeting at each hospital to explain the program, discuss their individual baseline metrics, and collaboratively develop a hospital‐specific implementation plan. A local implementation and unscheduled care governance team, composed of senior management members and local GPs, was established in each hospital to identify ward spaces to be developed as AMAUs, reassign nursing staff to the AMAU from the wards, and organize the recruitment of new consultants with an interest in acute general medicine. The program team performed 2 to 3 visits per year to each hospital to obtain feedback on performance and support local improvement plans using appreciative enquiry. They also organized workshops and training for physicians, nurses, managers, and data managers to improve understanding of and engagement with the program. An acute medicine nurse interest group was convened to support nurses in the transition to clinical practice with a greater focus on ambulatory care. Annual conferences were held to present and discuss annual and cumulative audit results.
Table 2 presents the national KPI results for the cost and value objectives over the 3 years of implementation. The number of medical discharges increased from 202,567 in 2010 to 253,083 in 2013. The proportion of discharges that passed through the AMAU was 29% in 2013, considerably reducing the amount of patients seen through the ED and alleviating some of the overcrowding experienced there.
The proportion of medical patients who avoided admission increased from 11.5% to 23.2% in 2013. When examining the proportion of patients discharged within 48 hours, we combined results for the ambulatory care pathway (LoS=0) and the medical short‐stay pathway (LoS=12) and found a 10% increase nationally from 36.9% to 47% in 2013. In addition, the proportion of total medical bed‐days used (BDU) for patients with LoS over 30 days also improved by 2.5%. The program achieved an overall reduction of 0.5 days in those staying over 2 days nationally, and an overall reduction in average LoS (AvLoS) for all medical inpatients of 1.6 days (from 8.5 days 6.9 days) across the 3 years.
Table 3 shows the average change in KPIs from 2010 to 2013 by hospital model group. Looking at data by hospital group allowed results to be interpreted in a national context and identify any bottlenecks in the health system.
| Care pathway | Metric | National | Model 2 | Model 3 | Model 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| |||||
| Ambulatory care pathway | % of patients with LoS=0 | 11.7% | 11.5% | 12% | 11.5% |
| Medical short‐stay pathway | % of patients with LoS 12 days | 1.6% | 5% | 2.3% | 0.3% |
| Routine specialist inpatient pathway | % of patients with LoS>2 days | 10% | 6.4% | 9.8% | 11.2% |
| Complex care pathway | % of patients with LoS>14 days | 2.3% | 0.4% | 1.7% | 4.1% |
| % BDU of patients with LoS>30 days | 2.5% | 1.9% | 0.2% | 4.9% | |
| Routine and complex care pathway | Average LoS for those staying >2 days | 0.5 | 0.7 | 0 | 1.4 |
| Summary metric | Overall average LoS | 1.6 | 0.4 | 1.0 | 2.6 |
During the 3‐year period, the role of model 2 hospitals changed from admitting all medical patients to only admitting differentiated medical patients referred from GPs. This is reflected in their KPI results, with an increasing proportion of patients with LoS greater than 14 days and the proportion of BDU occupied by those with LoS greater than 30 days. Data from the model 2 and 3 hospitals showed a considerable increase in same‐day discharges, with a concurrent decrease in percentage of patients staying in the hospital longer than 2 days. This translated to a national reduction in AvLoS of 1 day in this hospital group. Model 2 hospitals experienced small increases in both the AvLoS for those patients staying over 2 days (0.7%) and the proportion of BDU occupied by patients staying longer than 30 days (1.9%), whereas model 3 had experienced no real change in either of these metrics (0% and 0.2%, respectively). This reflected the limited availability of long‐term care facilities and protracted funding approval process nationally during the implementation period.
Model 4 hospitals experienced improvement across all KPIs. There was an 11.2% increase in the proportion of patients discharged within 48 hours and a 1.4‐day reduction in AvLoS for patients with LoS>2 days. A notable success within this hospital category was the 4.9% reduction in percentage of BDU by patients with LoS>30 days. The AvLoS for all medical admissions in this group remained above the national target at 8.6 days but did decrease considerably by 2.6 days from its baseline.
Data on 28‐day readmission to the same facility were used as a balancing measure but were only available for the latter 2 years. We found rates of 11% and 10% for 2012 and 2013, respectively. Patient experience of these new units should be assessed, but it was not possible to measure this during the implementation period.
DISCUSSION
The implementation of the NAMP has demonstrably streamlined the care of acute medical patients in Ireland. We report the results of this national transformational change brought about by the implementation of an evidence‐based model of care. The development of a flow model for each hospital improved the patient flow from assessment to discharge. Process improvement lies at the core of all the successes achieved by the program. The practice changes highlighted in Table 1 were pivotal in streamlining and improving the care of acutely ill medical patients. The focus on early access to senior decision making, early diagnostics, and a continuous, coordinated, multidisciplinary approach to care and discharge were central to the effective functioning of the AMAU and the resulting increase in avoided admissions.
Shortened lengths of stay are associated with better clinical outcomes and reduced exposure of patients to risk, and result in significant cost efficiencies accrued to the Irish health services.[2, 8] The adoption of ambulatory care and medical short‐stay pathways facilitated the 11.7% increase in avoided admissions and the reduction of 1.6 days in overall AvLoS nationally. This translates to significant cost savings for the Irish health system and likely improves clinical outcomes and reduced morbidity. We estimated these cost savings to be approximately 88.2 million by multiplying the number of bed days saved by the marginal cost of a bed day, which was quoted at 246 in 2012 by our Healthcare Pricing Office.
Thirty‐two of the 33 Irish hospitals that admit acute medical patients are now operating the program and achieving improvements in performance, as evidenced by ongoing audits. The priority given to the program by the RCPI and HSE has enabled the assignment of local implementation teams sustaining the focus on quality improvement at a local level. It also allowed for modest seed funding to be allocated for the appointment of 36 new consultants with an interest in acute general medicine. The cost of these additional consultants is offset by the considerable savings achieved through efficiency gains. An important challenge to implementation was the change in mindset required from local healthcare staff to divert patients away from the ED to the AMAU, and reassign staff and resources from other inpatient wards to the new unit. Visible clinical leadership from clinical directors, acute medicine hospital leads, senior nursing, and HSCP, together with management and local GPs, was essential in effecting this change. The program team also offered considerable support in this regard through advocacy and promotion of the program nationally. The implementation of the 4 care pathways represents a generational change in how medicine is practiced in Ireland. The development of acute medicine as a new specialty was strongly fostered by the program.
A number of disease‐specific clinical programs began operation during the implementation period and achieved reductions in AvLoS for some conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and heart failure, contributing to varying degrees (2%6%) to the bed‐days savings achieved by the NAMP. During the 3‐year period, there was a 25% increase in medical discharges. This is partly due to the changing demographics and epidemiology of chronic diseases in the Irish population. This increased demand was absorbed by the system with no increase in acute bed usage. We estimated that approximately 1000 additional acute beds would have been required if the NAMP efficiencies had not been achieved. Concurrent financial constraints compounded the stress on the public health system by limiting the available staff and resources for the new AMAUs and by reducing the number of community and nursing home beds available. This obstructed the flow of older and frailer patients out of the acute setting and impacted negatively on the performance of some hospitals.
An important limitation in auditing success in the quality and access aims of the program was the absence of IT systems within the AMAUs. These have since been specified by the NAMP but have not yet been delivered to the service areas. In addition, a bespoke user interface, which allows hospitals to manipulate and benchmark their own performance, is being developed. This will facilitate more in‐depth auditing within hospitals at the ward and consultant team level. The lack of a unique patient identifier hindered our ability to measure true 28‐day readmission rates, which is a useful quality indicator.
Despite these contextual, cultural, and structural challenges, the NAMP successfully implemented an evidence‐based model of care across the country. Through its implementation, tangible improvements to the Irish health system were observed with expected benefits to the patient. The program successfully instituted an ongoing audit cycle to promote continuous improvement and identified areas for future work to build on the successes achieved.
Disclosure
Nothing to report.
- ,. The effect of emergency department crowding on patient outcomes: a literature review. Adv Emerg Nurs J. 2011;33(1):39–54.
- , , , et al. Effect of emergency department crowding on outcomes of admitted patients. Ann Emerg Med. 2013;61(6):605–611.e6.
- , , . The relationship between emergency department crowding and patient outcomes: a systematic review. J Nurs Scholarsh. 2014;46(2):106–115.
- , , , et al. The effect of emergency department crowding on clinically oriented outcomes. Acad Emerg Med. 2009;16(1):1–10.
- Acute medical assessment units: a literature review. 2012. [Unpublished Manuscript]
- National Acute Medicine Programme Working Group. Report of the National Acute Medicine Programme 2010. Retrieved on Sep 24, 2014 from, http://www.hse.ie/eng/about/Who/clinical/natclinprog/acutemedicineprogramme/report.pdf. [Retrieved]
- Royal College of Physicians. Acute medical care. The right person, in the right setting—first time. October 2007. Retrieved on Sep 24, 2014, from, https://www.rcplondon.ac.uk/sites/default/files/documents/acute_medical_care_final_for_web.pdf.
- . Increase in patient mortality at 10 days associated with emergency department overcrowding. Med J Aust. 2006;184(5):213–216.
In 2009, Irish hospitals were experiencing ongoing and increasing overcrowding of emergency departments (EDs). This overcrowding and subsequent assessment delays are both associated with increased morbidity and mortality rates.[1, 2, 3, 4] The prevailing culture in many larger hospitals was to prioritize subspecialty care at the expense of the assessment and management of patients with undifferentiated acute medical presentations with nonspecific symptoms. The National Acute Medicine Programme (NAMP) was set up in 2010 by the Royal College of Physicians in Ireland (RCPI) and the Health Service Executive (HSE) to address this unsatisfactory management of acutely ill medical patients.
The objectives of the NAMP are categorized under 3 quality improvement principles: (1) Quality: to improve quality of care and patient safety by ensuring patients are seen by a nurse within 20 minutes and a senior doctor within 1 hour of arrival. (2) Access: to improve access by ensuring that the patient journey from presentation to decision to admit or discharge does not exceed 6 hours and to eliminate extended waiting periods on gurneys for medical patients. (3) Cost: to reduce cost and increase value by achieving bed savings through reduced overnight admissions and shortened lengths of stay.
The program was implemented by a small national team, which included hospital and public health physicians, nurses, a health and social care professional (HSCP), a general practitioner (GP), and a program manager. RCPI also set up a National Advisory Group of Consultant Physicians, comprised of representative medical consultants from all over the country, and key links were established with each acute hospital. The team aimed to develop a standardized model of care for all acutely ill medical patients and ensure its full implementation nationally.
METHODS
A literature review was undertaken to develop the standardized model of care in agreement with stakeholders and in consultation with patient groups.[5] The model of care required the establishment of acute medical assessment units (AMAUs), whose main function was to assess to discharge rather than admit to assess patients.[6, 7] At that time, only 8 of the 33 acute Irish hospitals that admitted medical patients had an AMAU. However, their function and operation varied greatly. In the remaining hospitals, all medical patients went to the ED, and from there were either admitted or discharged. Delays in access to senior clinicians, diagnostics, and allied health professionals such as, Occupational Therapists, Physiotherapists and Speech and Language Therapists often resulted in delays in assessment and treatment that could lead to overnight admissions.
In the new model, all acute medical patients, except those requiring invasive monitoring, critical care, or special services such as oncology and dialysis, are referred to the AMAU by another doctor (ie. a GP, outpatient department, or ED physician), as shown in Figure 1. A senior physician in the AMAU then reviews the patient and decides to admit or discharge. This doctor can either be a dedicated physician with an interest in acute general medicine, or a specialist consultant rostered to work in the unit on a regular basis. Some patients are discharged the same day thanks to prompt review and treatment. Of those requiring overnight admission, some are streamed directly to specialist pathways (eg. coronary care unit). The remaining patients are admitted to the medical short‐stay unit (MSSU) under the care of an acute physician. Patients in the MSSU are then either discharged within 48 hours or go on to be transferred to a specialist ward.
The model of care was therefore divided into 4 care pathways. National Health Service (NHS) admission data for 2008 to 2009 were used to calculate the proportion of patients who flowed through each pathway. The NHS has a wealth of experience in the development and use of AMAUs, having started implementing these units in the early 2000s. Therefore, the NHS estimates calculated above were used to set the national benchmarks for the NAMP. The four pathways are:
1. Ambulatory Care Pathway
Patients receive safe and effective treatment and are discharged on the same day. The NAMP benchmark was that at least 25% of AMAU admissions should follow this pathway of care.
2. Medical Short‐Stay Care Pathway
This pathway was developed for those patients who require inpatient care but are not expected to stay longer than 1 or 2 nights. The program benchmark was that 31% of patients should be discharged within 48 hours.
3. Routine Specialist Inpatient Care Pathway
Approximately 33% of medical admissions are expected to stay more than 2 days and less than 14 days in the hospital and have a straightforward discharge after their acute episode of care. These patients are admitted either directly to specialist medical wards from AMAU or via the MSSU within 2 days of arrival. Care is formally handed over from the AMAU team to the appropriate consultant physician upon transfer.
4. Appropriate Care and Discharge of Complex Patients Care Pathway
Frail older patients have complex care needs that continue following discharge, and their discharge requirements must be identified early during the acute care episode. The NAMP benchmark was that no more than 11% of medical admissions would fall into this pathway and require a length of stay (LoS) exceeding 14 days.
The flow model was used to build system capacity by modeling and predicting the expected demand on each AMAU to assist in forward planning The number of assessment spaces and ward beds required for each hospital were calculated by analyzing respective admission data for 2009 and applying target lengths of stay for medical patients to the flow model. The program team carried out this analysis for each of the 32 hospitals. The model of care also identified a number of practice changes under each pathway that would be required to achieve process changes and the resulting efficiency gains. Table 1 summarizes these.
|
| Ambulatory care pathway |
| Establishment of adequate assessment area |
| National early warning score within 20 minutes |
| Access to senior decision maker within 1 hour |
| Access to rapid diagnostics and HSCP assessment |
| Development of clinical criteria for transfer between ED and AMAU |
| Liaison with discharge planner |
| Clear pathways to specialist wards and community support |
| Close liaison with GP to ensure integrated care |
| Patient experience time in AMAU to be 6 hours or less |
| Medical short‐stay care pathway |
| Establishment of adequate short‐stay unit |
| Access to senior decision maker within 12 hours of transfer from AMAU |
| Twice daily consultant ward rounds |
| Access to prioritized diagnostics and HSCP assessment |
| Integrated discharge planning |
| Routine specialist inpatient care pathway |
| Daily consultant ward rounds |
| Weekend nurse/HSCP‐facilitated discharges |
| Active discharge planning with planned dates of discharge for every patient |
| Liaison with caregivers and community supports |
| Development of clinical criteria to support bidirectional flow to community hospitals within hospital groups |
| Appropriate care and discharge of complex patients care pathway |
| Early assessment and identification of complex patients |
| Streaming to care of the elderly services where appropriate |
| Proactive multidisciplinary discharge planning and liaison with funding agencies for referral to community placements and supports |
Hospitals were also categorized into 4 divisions or models as determined by the complexity of patients they admit. Model 1 hospitals are community units with subacute inpatient beds that can care for patients with rehabilitation, respite, or palliative care needs. Model 2 hospitals are small hospitals that provide inpatient and outpatient care for low‐risk, differentiated medical patients or refer on to associated higher complexity facilities. The majority of hospitals in the country are model 3 general hospitals, admitting 50% of all medical patients. Last, model 4 hospitals are the 8 regional tertiary referral centers in Ireland. A considerable volume of their patient workload remains inpatient admissions for routine specialist inpatient care.
Measuring success in the program's quality and access objectives required the development of a bespoke information technology (IT) system that is not yet operational, and therefore these objectives could not be audited.
A number of outcome measures or key performance indicators (KPIs) were developed to assess performance under each care pathway relative to the cost objectives of the NAMP as shown in Table 2. The available hospital inpatient enquiry (HIPE) data were analyzed by the program team to establish baseline performance metrics for each hospital. Initially, these data were only available to the NAMP 1 year in arrears. However, the NAMP worked with the hospitals and the HIPE system to improve the completeness and timeliness of the HIPE reporting, so that by the third quarter of 2011 monthly data were available. Audit cycles occurred on a continuous monthly basis, with feedback provided to each hospital and follow‐up of results conducted at a local level. This allowed for analysis of performance at a national, hospital group, and individual hospital level. Of note, it was only possible to analyze readmission rates to the same facility in the absence of a national unique patient identifier, and therefore readmission rates observed were of limited use as a quality measure.
| Care Pathway | Metric | National Target | 2010 | 2011 | 2012 | 2013* |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| ||||||
| Ambulatory care pathway | % of patients with LoS=0 | 25% | 11.5% | 12.9% | 18.8% | 23.2% |
| Medical short‐stay pathway | % of patients with LoS 12 days | 31% | 25.4% | 25.9% | 25.6% | 23.8% |
| Routine specialist inpatient pathway | % of patients with LoS>2 days | 44% | 63.1% | 61.2% | 55.6% | 53.1% |
| Complex care pathway | % of patients with LoS>14 days | 11% | 13.1% | 12.4% | 11.0% | 10.8% |
| % BDU of patients with LoS>30 days | 33% | 36.9% | 36.0% | 35.1% | 34.4% | |
| Routine and complex care pathway | Average LoS for those staying >2 days | 610 days | 12.9 | 12.7 | 12.4 | 12.4 |
| Summary metric | Overall average LoS | 5.8 days | 8.5 | 8.1 | 7.2 | 6.9 |
| No. of medical discharges | 202,567 | 206,250 | 235,167 | 253,083 | ||
RESULTS
The NAMP model of care was officially launched in December 2010.[6] Thirty‐two out of the 33 Irish hospitals that admit acute medical patients had adopted the model of care by the end of 2013. The program team performed an initial diagnostic meeting at each hospital to explain the program, discuss their individual baseline metrics, and collaboratively develop a hospital‐specific implementation plan. A local implementation and unscheduled care governance team, composed of senior management members and local GPs, was established in each hospital to identify ward spaces to be developed as AMAUs, reassign nursing staff to the AMAU from the wards, and organize the recruitment of new consultants with an interest in acute general medicine. The program team performed 2 to 3 visits per year to each hospital to obtain feedback on performance and support local improvement plans using appreciative enquiry. They also organized workshops and training for physicians, nurses, managers, and data managers to improve understanding of and engagement with the program. An acute medicine nurse interest group was convened to support nurses in the transition to clinical practice with a greater focus on ambulatory care. Annual conferences were held to present and discuss annual and cumulative audit results.
Table 2 presents the national KPI results for the cost and value objectives over the 3 years of implementation. The number of medical discharges increased from 202,567 in 2010 to 253,083 in 2013. The proportion of discharges that passed through the AMAU was 29% in 2013, considerably reducing the amount of patients seen through the ED and alleviating some of the overcrowding experienced there.
The proportion of medical patients who avoided admission increased from 11.5% to 23.2% in 2013. When examining the proportion of patients discharged within 48 hours, we combined results for the ambulatory care pathway (LoS=0) and the medical short‐stay pathway (LoS=12) and found a 10% increase nationally from 36.9% to 47% in 2013. In addition, the proportion of total medical bed‐days used (BDU) for patients with LoS over 30 days also improved by 2.5%. The program achieved an overall reduction of 0.5 days in those staying over 2 days nationally, and an overall reduction in average LoS (AvLoS) for all medical inpatients of 1.6 days (from 8.5 days 6.9 days) across the 3 years.
Table 3 shows the average change in KPIs from 2010 to 2013 by hospital model group. Looking at data by hospital group allowed results to be interpreted in a national context and identify any bottlenecks in the health system.
| Care pathway | Metric | National | Model 2 | Model 3 | Model 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| |||||
| Ambulatory care pathway | % of patients with LoS=0 | 11.7% | 11.5% | 12% | 11.5% |
| Medical short‐stay pathway | % of patients with LoS 12 days | 1.6% | 5% | 2.3% | 0.3% |
| Routine specialist inpatient pathway | % of patients with LoS>2 days | 10% | 6.4% | 9.8% | 11.2% |
| Complex care pathway | % of patients with LoS>14 days | 2.3% | 0.4% | 1.7% | 4.1% |
| % BDU of patients with LoS>30 days | 2.5% | 1.9% | 0.2% | 4.9% | |
| Routine and complex care pathway | Average LoS for those staying >2 days | 0.5 | 0.7 | 0 | 1.4 |
| Summary metric | Overall average LoS | 1.6 | 0.4 | 1.0 | 2.6 |
During the 3‐year period, the role of model 2 hospitals changed from admitting all medical patients to only admitting differentiated medical patients referred from GPs. This is reflected in their KPI results, with an increasing proportion of patients with LoS greater than 14 days and the proportion of BDU occupied by those with LoS greater than 30 days. Data from the model 2 and 3 hospitals showed a considerable increase in same‐day discharges, with a concurrent decrease in percentage of patients staying in the hospital longer than 2 days. This translated to a national reduction in AvLoS of 1 day in this hospital group. Model 2 hospitals experienced small increases in both the AvLoS for those patients staying over 2 days (0.7%) and the proportion of BDU occupied by patients staying longer than 30 days (1.9%), whereas model 3 had experienced no real change in either of these metrics (0% and 0.2%, respectively). This reflected the limited availability of long‐term care facilities and protracted funding approval process nationally during the implementation period.
Model 4 hospitals experienced improvement across all KPIs. There was an 11.2% increase in the proportion of patients discharged within 48 hours and a 1.4‐day reduction in AvLoS for patients with LoS>2 days. A notable success within this hospital category was the 4.9% reduction in percentage of BDU by patients with LoS>30 days. The AvLoS for all medical admissions in this group remained above the national target at 8.6 days but did decrease considerably by 2.6 days from its baseline.
Data on 28‐day readmission to the same facility were used as a balancing measure but were only available for the latter 2 years. We found rates of 11% and 10% for 2012 and 2013, respectively. Patient experience of these new units should be assessed, but it was not possible to measure this during the implementation period.
DISCUSSION
The implementation of the NAMP has demonstrably streamlined the care of acute medical patients in Ireland. We report the results of this national transformational change brought about by the implementation of an evidence‐based model of care. The development of a flow model for each hospital improved the patient flow from assessment to discharge. Process improvement lies at the core of all the successes achieved by the program. The practice changes highlighted in Table 1 were pivotal in streamlining and improving the care of acutely ill medical patients. The focus on early access to senior decision making, early diagnostics, and a continuous, coordinated, multidisciplinary approach to care and discharge were central to the effective functioning of the AMAU and the resulting increase in avoided admissions.
Shortened lengths of stay are associated with better clinical outcomes and reduced exposure of patients to risk, and result in significant cost efficiencies accrued to the Irish health services.[2, 8] The adoption of ambulatory care and medical short‐stay pathways facilitated the 11.7% increase in avoided admissions and the reduction of 1.6 days in overall AvLoS nationally. This translates to significant cost savings for the Irish health system and likely improves clinical outcomes and reduced morbidity. We estimated these cost savings to be approximately 88.2 million by multiplying the number of bed days saved by the marginal cost of a bed day, which was quoted at 246 in 2012 by our Healthcare Pricing Office.
Thirty‐two of the 33 Irish hospitals that admit acute medical patients are now operating the program and achieving improvements in performance, as evidenced by ongoing audits. The priority given to the program by the RCPI and HSE has enabled the assignment of local implementation teams sustaining the focus on quality improvement at a local level. It also allowed for modest seed funding to be allocated for the appointment of 36 new consultants with an interest in acute general medicine. The cost of these additional consultants is offset by the considerable savings achieved through efficiency gains. An important challenge to implementation was the change in mindset required from local healthcare staff to divert patients away from the ED to the AMAU, and reassign staff and resources from other inpatient wards to the new unit. Visible clinical leadership from clinical directors, acute medicine hospital leads, senior nursing, and HSCP, together with management and local GPs, was essential in effecting this change. The program team also offered considerable support in this regard through advocacy and promotion of the program nationally. The implementation of the 4 care pathways represents a generational change in how medicine is practiced in Ireland. The development of acute medicine as a new specialty was strongly fostered by the program.
A number of disease‐specific clinical programs began operation during the implementation period and achieved reductions in AvLoS for some conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and heart failure, contributing to varying degrees (2%6%) to the bed‐days savings achieved by the NAMP. During the 3‐year period, there was a 25% increase in medical discharges. This is partly due to the changing demographics and epidemiology of chronic diseases in the Irish population. This increased demand was absorbed by the system with no increase in acute bed usage. We estimated that approximately 1000 additional acute beds would have been required if the NAMP efficiencies had not been achieved. Concurrent financial constraints compounded the stress on the public health system by limiting the available staff and resources for the new AMAUs and by reducing the number of community and nursing home beds available. This obstructed the flow of older and frailer patients out of the acute setting and impacted negatively on the performance of some hospitals.
An important limitation in auditing success in the quality and access aims of the program was the absence of IT systems within the AMAUs. These have since been specified by the NAMP but have not yet been delivered to the service areas. In addition, a bespoke user interface, which allows hospitals to manipulate and benchmark their own performance, is being developed. This will facilitate more in‐depth auditing within hospitals at the ward and consultant team level. The lack of a unique patient identifier hindered our ability to measure true 28‐day readmission rates, which is a useful quality indicator.
Despite these contextual, cultural, and structural challenges, the NAMP successfully implemented an evidence‐based model of care across the country. Through its implementation, tangible improvements to the Irish health system were observed with expected benefits to the patient. The program successfully instituted an ongoing audit cycle to promote continuous improvement and identified areas for future work to build on the successes achieved.
Disclosure
Nothing to report.
In 2009, Irish hospitals were experiencing ongoing and increasing overcrowding of emergency departments (EDs). This overcrowding and subsequent assessment delays are both associated with increased morbidity and mortality rates.[1, 2, 3, 4] The prevailing culture in many larger hospitals was to prioritize subspecialty care at the expense of the assessment and management of patients with undifferentiated acute medical presentations with nonspecific symptoms. The National Acute Medicine Programme (NAMP) was set up in 2010 by the Royal College of Physicians in Ireland (RCPI) and the Health Service Executive (HSE) to address this unsatisfactory management of acutely ill medical patients.
The objectives of the NAMP are categorized under 3 quality improvement principles: (1) Quality: to improve quality of care and patient safety by ensuring patients are seen by a nurse within 20 minutes and a senior doctor within 1 hour of arrival. (2) Access: to improve access by ensuring that the patient journey from presentation to decision to admit or discharge does not exceed 6 hours and to eliminate extended waiting periods on gurneys for medical patients. (3) Cost: to reduce cost and increase value by achieving bed savings through reduced overnight admissions and shortened lengths of stay.
The program was implemented by a small national team, which included hospital and public health physicians, nurses, a health and social care professional (HSCP), a general practitioner (GP), and a program manager. RCPI also set up a National Advisory Group of Consultant Physicians, comprised of representative medical consultants from all over the country, and key links were established with each acute hospital. The team aimed to develop a standardized model of care for all acutely ill medical patients and ensure its full implementation nationally.
METHODS
A literature review was undertaken to develop the standardized model of care in agreement with stakeholders and in consultation with patient groups.[5] The model of care required the establishment of acute medical assessment units (AMAUs), whose main function was to assess to discharge rather than admit to assess patients.[6, 7] At that time, only 8 of the 33 acute Irish hospitals that admitted medical patients had an AMAU. However, their function and operation varied greatly. In the remaining hospitals, all medical patients went to the ED, and from there were either admitted or discharged. Delays in access to senior clinicians, diagnostics, and allied health professionals such as, Occupational Therapists, Physiotherapists and Speech and Language Therapists often resulted in delays in assessment and treatment that could lead to overnight admissions.
In the new model, all acute medical patients, except those requiring invasive monitoring, critical care, or special services such as oncology and dialysis, are referred to the AMAU by another doctor (ie. a GP, outpatient department, or ED physician), as shown in Figure 1. A senior physician in the AMAU then reviews the patient and decides to admit or discharge. This doctor can either be a dedicated physician with an interest in acute general medicine, or a specialist consultant rostered to work in the unit on a regular basis. Some patients are discharged the same day thanks to prompt review and treatment. Of those requiring overnight admission, some are streamed directly to specialist pathways (eg. coronary care unit). The remaining patients are admitted to the medical short‐stay unit (MSSU) under the care of an acute physician. Patients in the MSSU are then either discharged within 48 hours or go on to be transferred to a specialist ward.
The model of care was therefore divided into 4 care pathways. National Health Service (NHS) admission data for 2008 to 2009 were used to calculate the proportion of patients who flowed through each pathway. The NHS has a wealth of experience in the development and use of AMAUs, having started implementing these units in the early 2000s. Therefore, the NHS estimates calculated above were used to set the national benchmarks for the NAMP. The four pathways are:
1. Ambulatory Care Pathway
Patients receive safe and effective treatment and are discharged on the same day. The NAMP benchmark was that at least 25% of AMAU admissions should follow this pathway of care.
2. Medical Short‐Stay Care Pathway
This pathway was developed for those patients who require inpatient care but are not expected to stay longer than 1 or 2 nights. The program benchmark was that 31% of patients should be discharged within 48 hours.
3. Routine Specialist Inpatient Care Pathway
Approximately 33% of medical admissions are expected to stay more than 2 days and less than 14 days in the hospital and have a straightforward discharge after their acute episode of care. These patients are admitted either directly to specialist medical wards from AMAU or via the MSSU within 2 days of arrival. Care is formally handed over from the AMAU team to the appropriate consultant physician upon transfer.
4. Appropriate Care and Discharge of Complex Patients Care Pathway
Frail older patients have complex care needs that continue following discharge, and their discharge requirements must be identified early during the acute care episode. The NAMP benchmark was that no more than 11% of medical admissions would fall into this pathway and require a length of stay (LoS) exceeding 14 days.
The flow model was used to build system capacity by modeling and predicting the expected demand on each AMAU to assist in forward planning The number of assessment spaces and ward beds required for each hospital were calculated by analyzing respective admission data for 2009 and applying target lengths of stay for medical patients to the flow model. The program team carried out this analysis for each of the 32 hospitals. The model of care also identified a number of practice changes under each pathway that would be required to achieve process changes and the resulting efficiency gains. Table 1 summarizes these.
|
| Ambulatory care pathway |
| Establishment of adequate assessment area |
| National early warning score within 20 minutes |
| Access to senior decision maker within 1 hour |
| Access to rapid diagnostics and HSCP assessment |
| Development of clinical criteria for transfer between ED and AMAU |
| Liaison with discharge planner |
| Clear pathways to specialist wards and community support |
| Close liaison with GP to ensure integrated care |
| Patient experience time in AMAU to be 6 hours or less |
| Medical short‐stay care pathway |
| Establishment of adequate short‐stay unit |
| Access to senior decision maker within 12 hours of transfer from AMAU |
| Twice daily consultant ward rounds |
| Access to prioritized diagnostics and HSCP assessment |
| Integrated discharge planning |
| Routine specialist inpatient care pathway |
| Daily consultant ward rounds |
| Weekend nurse/HSCP‐facilitated discharges |
| Active discharge planning with planned dates of discharge for every patient |
| Liaison with caregivers and community supports |
| Development of clinical criteria to support bidirectional flow to community hospitals within hospital groups |
| Appropriate care and discharge of complex patients care pathway |
| Early assessment and identification of complex patients |
| Streaming to care of the elderly services where appropriate |
| Proactive multidisciplinary discharge planning and liaison with funding agencies for referral to community placements and supports |
Hospitals were also categorized into 4 divisions or models as determined by the complexity of patients they admit. Model 1 hospitals are community units with subacute inpatient beds that can care for patients with rehabilitation, respite, or palliative care needs. Model 2 hospitals are small hospitals that provide inpatient and outpatient care for low‐risk, differentiated medical patients or refer on to associated higher complexity facilities. The majority of hospitals in the country are model 3 general hospitals, admitting 50% of all medical patients. Last, model 4 hospitals are the 8 regional tertiary referral centers in Ireland. A considerable volume of their patient workload remains inpatient admissions for routine specialist inpatient care.
Measuring success in the program's quality and access objectives required the development of a bespoke information technology (IT) system that is not yet operational, and therefore these objectives could not be audited.
A number of outcome measures or key performance indicators (KPIs) were developed to assess performance under each care pathway relative to the cost objectives of the NAMP as shown in Table 2. The available hospital inpatient enquiry (HIPE) data were analyzed by the program team to establish baseline performance metrics for each hospital. Initially, these data were only available to the NAMP 1 year in arrears. However, the NAMP worked with the hospitals and the HIPE system to improve the completeness and timeliness of the HIPE reporting, so that by the third quarter of 2011 monthly data were available. Audit cycles occurred on a continuous monthly basis, with feedback provided to each hospital and follow‐up of results conducted at a local level. This allowed for analysis of performance at a national, hospital group, and individual hospital level. Of note, it was only possible to analyze readmission rates to the same facility in the absence of a national unique patient identifier, and therefore readmission rates observed were of limited use as a quality measure.
| Care Pathway | Metric | National Target | 2010 | 2011 | 2012 | 2013* |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| ||||||
| Ambulatory care pathway | % of patients with LoS=0 | 25% | 11.5% | 12.9% | 18.8% | 23.2% |
| Medical short‐stay pathway | % of patients with LoS 12 days | 31% | 25.4% | 25.9% | 25.6% | 23.8% |
| Routine specialist inpatient pathway | % of patients with LoS>2 days | 44% | 63.1% | 61.2% | 55.6% | 53.1% |
| Complex care pathway | % of patients with LoS>14 days | 11% | 13.1% | 12.4% | 11.0% | 10.8% |
| % BDU of patients with LoS>30 days | 33% | 36.9% | 36.0% | 35.1% | 34.4% | |
| Routine and complex care pathway | Average LoS for those staying >2 days | 610 days | 12.9 | 12.7 | 12.4 | 12.4 |
| Summary metric | Overall average LoS | 5.8 days | 8.5 | 8.1 | 7.2 | 6.9 |
| No. of medical discharges | 202,567 | 206,250 | 235,167 | 253,083 | ||
RESULTS
The NAMP model of care was officially launched in December 2010.[6] Thirty‐two out of the 33 Irish hospitals that admit acute medical patients had adopted the model of care by the end of 2013. The program team performed an initial diagnostic meeting at each hospital to explain the program, discuss their individual baseline metrics, and collaboratively develop a hospital‐specific implementation plan. A local implementation and unscheduled care governance team, composed of senior management members and local GPs, was established in each hospital to identify ward spaces to be developed as AMAUs, reassign nursing staff to the AMAU from the wards, and organize the recruitment of new consultants with an interest in acute general medicine. The program team performed 2 to 3 visits per year to each hospital to obtain feedback on performance and support local improvement plans using appreciative enquiry. They also organized workshops and training for physicians, nurses, managers, and data managers to improve understanding of and engagement with the program. An acute medicine nurse interest group was convened to support nurses in the transition to clinical practice with a greater focus on ambulatory care. Annual conferences were held to present and discuss annual and cumulative audit results.
Table 2 presents the national KPI results for the cost and value objectives over the 3 years of implementation. The number of medical discharges increased from 202,567 in 2010 to 253,083 in 2013. The proportion of discharges that passed through the AMAU was 29% in 2013, considerably reducing the amount of patients seen through the ED and alleviating some of the overcrowding experienced there.
The proportion of medical patients who avoided admission increased from 11.5% to 23.2% in 2013. When examining the proportion of patients discharged within 48 hours, we combined results for the ambulatory care pathway (LoS=0) and the medical short‐stay pathway (LoS=12) and found a 10% increase nationally from 36.9% to 47% in 2013. In addition, the proportion of total medical bed‐days used (BDU) for patients with LoS over 30 days also improved by 2.5%. The program achieved an overall reduction of 0.5 days in those staying over 2 days nationally, and an overall reduction in average LoS (AvLoS) for all medical inpatients of 1.6 days (from 8.5 days 6.9 days) across the 3 years.
Table 3 shows the average change in KPIs from 2010 to 2013 by hospital model group. Looking at data by hospital group allowed results to be interpreted in a national context and identify any bottlenecks in the health system.
| Care pathway | Metric | National | Model 2 | Model 3 | Model 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| |||||
| Ambulatory care pathway | % of patients with LoS=0 | 11.7% | 11.5% | 12% | 11.5% |
| Medical short‐stay pathway | % of patients with LoS 12 days | 1.6% | 5% | 2.3% | 0.3% |
| Routine specialist inpatient pathway | % of patients with LoS>2 days | 10% | 6.4% | 9.8% | 11.2% |
| Complex care pathway | % of patients with LoS>14 days | 2.3% | 0.4% | 1.7% | 4.1% |
| % BDU of patients with LoS>30 days | 2.5% | 1.9% | 0.2% | 4.9% | |
| Routine and complex care pathway | Average LoS for those staying >2 days | 0.5 | 0.7 | 0 | 1.4 |
| Summary metric | Overall average LoS | 1.6 | 0.4 | 1.0 | 2.6 |
During the 3‐year period, the role of model 2 hospitals changed from admitting all medical patients to only admitting differentiated medical patients referred from GPs. This is reflected in their KPI results, with an increasing proportion of patients with LoS greater than 14 days and the proportion of BDU occupied by those with LoS greater than 30 days. Data from the model 2 and 3 hospitals showed a considerable increase in same‐day discharges, with a concurrent decrease in percentage of patients staying in the hospital longer than 2 days. This translated to a national reduction in AvLoS of 1 day in this hospital group. Model 2 hospitals experienced small increases in both the AvLoS for those patients staying over 2 days (0.7%) and the proportion of BDU occupied by patients staying longer than 30 days (1.9%), whereas model 3 had experienced no real change in either of these metrics (0% and 0.2%, respectively). This reflected the limited availability of long‐term care facilities and protracted funding approval process nationally during the implementation period.
Model 4 hospitals experienced improvement across all KPIs. There was an 11.2% increase in the proportion of patients discharged within 48 hours and a 1.4‐day reduction in AvLoS for patients with LoS>2 days. A notable success within this hospital category was the 4.9% reduction in percentage of BDU by patients with LoS>30 days. The AvLoS for all medical admissions in this group remained above the national target at 8.6 days but did decrease considerably by 2.6 days from its baseline.
Data on 28‐day readmission to the same facility were used as a balancing measure but were only available for the latter 2 years. We found rates of 11% and 10% for 2012 and 2013, respectively. Patient experience of these new units should be assessed, but it was not possible to measure this during the implementation period.
DISCUSSION
The implementation of the NAMP has demonstrably streamlined the care of acute medical patients in Ireland. We report the results of this national transformational change brought about by the implementation of an evidence‐based model of care. The development of a flow model for each hospital improved the patient flow from assessment to discharge. Process improvement lies at the core of all the successes achieved by the program. The practice changes highlighted in Table 1 were pivotal in streamlining and improving the care of acutely ill medical patients. The focus on early access to senior decision making, early diagnostics, and a continuous, coordinated, multidisciplinary approach to care and discharge were central to the effective functioning of the AMAU and the resulting increase in avoided admissions.
Shortened lengths of stay are associated with better clinical outcomes and reduced exposure of patients to risk, and result in significant cost efficiencies accrued to the Irish health services.[2, 8] The adoption of ambulatory care and medical short‐stay pathways facilitated the 11.7% increase in avoided admissions and the reduction of 1.6 days in overall AvLoS nationally. This translates to significant cost savings for the Irish health system and likely improves clinical outcomes and reduced morbidity. We estimated these cost savings to be approximately 88.2 million by multiplying the number of bed days saved by the marginal cost of a bed day, which was quoted at 246 in 2012 by our Healthcare Pricing Office.
Thirty‐two of the 33 Irish hospitals that admit acute medical patients are now operating the program and achieving improvements in performance, as evidenced by ongoing audits. The priority given to the program by the RCPI and HSE has enabled the assignment of local implementation teams sustaining the focus on quality improvement at a local level. It also allowed for modest seed funding to be allocated for the appointment of 36 new consultants with an interest in acute general medicine. The cost of these additional consultants is offset by the considerable savings achieved through efficiency gains. An important challenge to implementation was the change in mindset required from local healthcare staff to divert patients away from the ED to the AMAU, and reassign staff and resources from other inpatient wards to the new unit. Visible clinical leadership from clinical directors, acute medicine hospital leads, senior nursing, and HSCP, together with management and local GPs, was essential in effecting this change. The program team also offered considerable support in this regard through advocacy and promotion of the program nationally. The implementation of the 4 care pathways represents a generational change in how medicine is practiced in Ireland. The development of acute medicine as a new specialty was strongly fostered by the program.
A number of disease‐specific clinical programs began operation during the implementation period and achieved reductions in AvLoS for some conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and heart failure, contributing to varying degrees (2%6%) to the bed‐days savings achieved by the NAMP. During the 3‐year period, there was a 25% increase in medical discharges. This is partly due to the changing demographics and epidemiology of chronic diseases in the Irish population. This increased demand was absorbed by the system with no increase in acute bed usage. We estimated that approximately 1000 additional acute beds would have been required if the NAMP efficiencies had not been achieved. Concurrent financial constraints compounded the stress on the public health system by limiting the available staff and resources for the new AMAUs and by reducing the number of community and nursing home beds available. This obstructed the flow of older and frailer patients out of the acute setting and impacted negatively on the performance of some hospitals.
An important limitation in auditing success in the quality and access aims of the program was the absence of IT systems within the AMAUs. These have since been specified by the NAMP but have not yet been delivered to the service areas. In addition, a bespoke user interface, which allows hospitals to manipulate and benchmark their own performance, is being developed. This will facilitate more in‐depth auditing within hospitals at the ward and consultant team level. The lack of a unique patient identifier hindered our ability to measure true 28‐day readmission rates, which is a useful quality indicator.
Despite these contextual, cultural, and structural challenges, the NAMP successfully implemented an evidence‐based model of care across the country. Through its implementation, tangible improvements to the Irish health system were observed with expected benefits to the patient. The program successfully instituted an ongoing audit cycle to promote continuous improvement and identified areas for future work to build on the successes achieved.
Disclosure
Nothing to report.
- ,. The effect of emergency department crowding on patient outcomes: a literature review. Adv Emerg Nurs J. 2011;33(1):39–54.
- , , , et al. Effect of emergency department crowding on outcomes of admitted patients. Ann Emerg Med. 2013;61(6):605–611.e6.
- , , . The relationship between emergency department crowding and patient outcomes: a systematic review. J Nurs Scholarsh. 2014;46(2):106–115.
- , , , et al. The effect of emergency department crowding on clinically oriented outcomes. Acad Emerg Med. 2009;16(1):1–10.
- Acute medical assessment units: a literature review. 2012. [Unpublished Manuscript]
- National Acute Medicine Programme Working Group. Report of the National Acute Medicine Programme 2010. Retrieved on Sep 24, 2014 from, http://www.hse.ie/eng/about/Who/clinical/natclinprog/acutemedicineprogramme/report.pdf. [Retrieved]
- Royal College of Physicians. Acute medical care. The right person, in the right setting—first time. October 2007. Retrieved on Sep 24, 2014, from, https://www.rcplondon.ac.uk/sites/default/files/documents/acute_medical_care_final_for_web.pdf.
- . Increase in patient mortality at 10 days associated with emergency department overcrowding. Med J Aust. 2006;184(5):213–216.
- ,. The effect of emergency department crowding on patient outcomes: a literature review. Adv Emerg Nurs J. 2011;33(1):39–54.
- , , , et al. Effect of emergency department crowding on outcomes of admitted patients. Ann Emerg Med. 2013;61(6):605–611.e6.
- , , . The relationship between emergency department crowding and patient outcomes: a systematic review. J Nurs Scholarsh. 2014;46(2):106–115.
- , , , et al. The effect of emergency department crowding on clinically oriented outcomes. Acad Emerg Med. 2009;16(1):1–10.
- Acute medical assessment units: a literature review. 2012. [Unpublished Manuscript]
- National Acute Medicine Programme Working Group. Report of the National Acute Medicine Programme 2010. Retrieved on Sep 24, 2014 from, http://www.hse.ie/eng/about/Who/clinical/natclinprog/acutemedicineprogramme/report.pdf. [Retrieved]
- Royal College of Physicians. Acute medical care. The right person, in the right setting—first time. October 2007. Retrieved on Sep 24, 2014, from, https://www.rcplondon.ac.uk/sites/default/files/documents/acute_medical_care_final_for_web.pdf.
- . Increase in patient mortality at 10 days associated with emergency department overcrowding. Med J Aust. 2006;184(5):213–216.
© 2015 Society of Hospital Medicine
Bluish Pink, Nontender Lesion Worries Patient’s Mother
A 12-year-old girl is brought to dermatology by her mother for evaluation of a lesion on her arm. It’s been there for two years without causing symptoms—but lately it has grown, as has the mother’s concern.
The child is otherwise healthy. The mother reports that the child has neither a personal nor a family history of seizures.
EXAMINATION
A solitary, firm, subcutaneous nodule measuring 2 cm is located on the lateral aspect of the child’s left triceps. It is bluish pink, nontender, and firm on palpation. No other overlying skin changes are seen.
Lateral digital traction toward the center of the lesion produces no dimpling, while lateral traction toward its periphery accentuates the lesion’s central raised portion. The lesion is moderately mobile. No lymph nodes are felt on palpation of nodal sites in the area, and no other such lesions are found elsewhere on the child’s skin.
What is the diagnosis?
DISCUSSION
At this point, the differential included items such as pilomatricoma, dermatofibroma, calcinosis cutis, or epidermal cyst. The firm feel, bluish color, and shallow subcutaneous location of the lesion lent themselves to a provisional diagnosis of pilomatricoma, as did the patient’s age. But the fact that the lesion was changing was of sufficient concern to prompt removal.
Excision revealed a cystic lesion with cottage-cheese–like contents and a poorly defined wall, extending more than a centimeter into the subcutaneous tissue. It was removed in one piece and submitted to pathology. Primary closure completed the procedure.
The pathology report showed sheets of anucleate squamous cells (called ghost cells), benign viable nucleated squamous cells, and a center filled with multiple soft calcified granules. A positive von Kossa stain confirmed the expected diagnosis of pilomatricoma (PMC; also spelled pilomatrixoma).
PMCs, also known by their eponymous designation of calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe, are common, benign appendageal tumors derived from hair matrix. They usually manifest (as in this case) as a solitary subcutaneous firm mass, often with bluish discoloration, on the face, neck, or upper extremities. While they average around 2 cm, they can be as large as 15 cm in diameter. They are more common in children and occur slightly more often in girls.
There is some evidence that the tendency to develop PMCs is associated with increased levels of beta-catenin, which encourages cell growth by diminishing apoptosis. This mechanism is thought to promote malignant transformation of PMCs—a rare event.
As is often the case, the main concern about this patient’s lesion related to its unknown source and recent alteration. Aside from scarring, the patient was no worse off for its removal—and her mother was much relieved.
TAKE-HOME LEARNING POINTS
• PMCs are benign cystic lesions of appendageal origin, commonly found on the necks, faces, and upper extremities of children.
• Diagnostic clues for PMC include firm feel, subcutaneous location, bluish discoloration, and patient age.
• PMCs have poorly defined cyst walls and granular calcified contents.
• Except when occurring in multiples, PMCs have no pathologic implications.
• The term calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe is still in use, as is the alternate spelling of pilomatrixoma.
A 12-year-old girl is brought to dermatology by her mother for evaluation of a lesion on her arm. It’s been there for two years without causing symptoms—but lately it has grown, as has the mother’s concern.
The child is otherwise healthy. The mother reports that the child has neither a personal nor a family history of seizures.
EXAMINATION
A solitary, firm, subcutaneous nodule measuring 2 cm is located on the lateral aspect of the child’s left triceps. It is bluish pink, nontender, and firm on palpation. No other overlying skin changes are seen.
Lateral digital traction toward the center of the lesion produces no dimpling, while lateral traction toward its periphery accentuates the lesion’s central raised portion. The lesion is moderately mobile. No lymph nodes are felt on palpation of nodal sites in the area, and no other such lesions are found elsewhere on the child’s skin.
What is the diagnosis?
DISCUSSION
At this point, the differential included items such as pilomatricoma, dermatofibroma, calcinosis cutis, or epidermal cyst. The firm feel, bluish color, and shallow subcutaneous location of the lesion lent themselves to a provisional diagnosis of pilomatricoma, as did the patient’s age. But the fact that the lesion was changing was of sufficient concern to prompt removal.
Excision revealed a cystic lesion with cottage-cheese–like contents and a poorly defined wall, extending more than a centimeter into the subcutaneous tissue. It was removed in one piece and submitted to pathology. Primary closure completed the procedure.
The pathology report showed sheets of anucleate squamous cells (called ghost cells), benign viable nucleated squamous cells, and a center filled with multiple soft calcified granules. A positive von Kossa stain confirmed the expected diagnosis of pilomatricoma (PMC; also spelled pilomatrixoma).
PMCs, also known by their eponymous designation of calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe, are common, benign appendageal tumors derived from hair matrix. They usually manifest (as in this case) as a solitary subcutaneous firm mass, often with bluish discoloration, on the face, neck, or upper extremities. While they average around 2 cm, they can be as large as 15 cm in diameter. They are more common in children and occur slightly more often in girls.
There is some evidence that the tendency to develop PMCs is associated with increased levels of beta-catenin, which encourages cell growth by diminishing apoptosis. This mechanism is thought to promote malignant transformation of PMCs—a rare event.
As is often the case, the main concern about this patient’s lesion related to its unknown source and recent alteration. Aside from scarring, the patient was no worse off for its removal—and her mother was much relieved.
TAKE-HOME LEARNING POINTS
• PMCs are benign cystic lesions of appendageal origin, commonly found on the necks, faces, and upper extremities of children.
• Diagnostic clues for PMC include firm feel, subcutaneous location, bluish discoloration, and patient age.
• PMCs have poorly defined cyst walls and granular calcified contents.
• Except when occurring in multiples, PMCs have no pathologic implications.
• The term calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe is still in use, as is the alternate spelling of pilomatrixoma.
A 12-year-old girl is brought to dermatology by her mother for evaluation of a lesion on her arm. It’s been there for two years without causing symptoms—but lately it has grown, as has the mother’s concern.
The child is otherwise healthy. The mother reports that the child has neither a personal nor a family history of seizures.
EXAMINATION
A solitary, firm, subcutaneous nodule measuring 2 cm is located on the lateral aspect of the child’s left triceps. It is bluish pink, nontender, and firm on palpation. No other overlying skin changes are seen.
Lateral digital traction toward the center of the lesion produces no dimpling, while lateral traction toward its periphery accentuates the lesion’s central raised portion. The lesion is moderately mobile. No lymph nodes are felt on palpation of nodal sites in the area, and no other such lesions are found elsewhere on the child’s skin.
What is the diagnosis?
DISCUSSION
At this point, the differential included items such as pilomatricoma, dermatofibroma, calcinosis cutis, or epidermal cyst. The firm feel, bluish color, and shallow subcutaneous location of the lesion lent themselves to a provisional diagnosis of pilomatricoma, as did the patient’s age. But the fact that the lesion was changing was of sufficient concern to prompt removal.
Excision revealed a cystic lesion with cottage-cheese–like contents and a poorly defined wall, extending more than a centimeter into the subcutaneous tissue. It was removed in one piece and submitted to pathology. Primary closure completed the procedure.
The pathology report showed sheets of anucleate squamous cells (called ghost cells), benign viable nucleated squamous cells, and a center filled with multiple soft calcified granules. A positive von Kossa stain confirmed the expected diagnosis of pilomatricoma (PMC; also spelled pilomatrixoma).
PMCs, also known by their eponymous designation of calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe, are common, benign appendageal tumors derived from hair matrix. They usually manifest (as in this case) as a solitary subcutaneous firm mass, often with bluish discoloration, on the face, neck, or upper extremities. While they average around 2 cm, they can be as large as 15 cm in diameter. They are more common in children and occur slightly more often in girls.
There is some evidence that the tendency to develop PMCs is associated with increased levels of beta-catenin, which encourages cell growth by diminishing apoptosis. This mechanism is thought to promote malignant transformation of PMCs—a rare event.
As is often the case, the main concern about this patient’s lesion related to its unknown source and recent alteration. Aside from scarring, the patient was no worse off for its removal—and her mother was much relieved.
TAKE-HOME LEARNING POINTS
• PMCs are benign cystic lesions of appendageal origin, commonly found on the necks, faces, and upper extremities of children.
• Diagnostic clues for PMC include firm feel, subcutaneous location, bluish discoloration, and patient age.
• PMCs have poorly defined cyst walls and granular calcified contents.
• Except when occurring in multiples, PMCs have no pathologic implications.
• The term calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe is still in use, as is the alternate spelling of pilomatrixoma.
Stratum Corneum Absorption Kinetics of 2 Potent Topical Corticosteroid Formulations: A Pilot Study
The active ingredient of any pharmaceutical product is responsible for the agent’s efficacy and safety profile. This ingredient is extensively studied in clinical trials and evaluated by the US Food and Drug Administration before the product is commercially available. In dermatologic products, especially those for treating dermatoses, the vehicle in which the active ingredient is formulated also plays a role in drug delivery and indirectly impacts therapeutic outcomes, unlike excipients in oral medications. Topical vehicles must be stable, provide a suitable environment that will not degrade the active ingredient or affect its efficacy, and be cosmetically acceptable.1
Topical vehicles are formulated to maintain the stability of the active ingredient and allow it to readily penetrate the skin and reach its target area with minimal absorption into the bloodstream, thus avoiding systemic adverse events. A variety of vehicles can exist for a single active ingredient to accommodate different phases of disease and different anatomical sites where the disease may occur.2 For example, alcohol-based vehicles, sprays, and foams are preferred for the scalp where evaporation of the vehicle is beneficial to prevent greasiness of the hair, while ointments may be preferred due to their occlusive nature for areas with xerotic or thick skin from dermatoses.
Cosmetic acceptability of the vehicle may influence patient adherence to therapy. Housman et al3 assessed a variety of products formulated in different vehicles (ie, solutions, foams, emollients, gels, creams, ointments) for the treatment of psoriasis. Patients with psoriasis applied each test product to a quarter-sized area of normal skin on the forearm using a cotton swab and completed a preference questionnaire. By far, respondents significantly preferred solutions and foams over creams, gels, and ointments (P<.01). Side effects were rated to be the most important characteristics of topical therapy, followed by time needed for application, ease of application, and messiness.3 Presumably, if patients are frustrated with the topical product that they are using, adherence to the prescribed dosage and application instructions will diminish over time, leading to suboptimal steady-state levels of the product. If appropriate levels of the drug are not present at the target site, treatment will not be successful.
Steady-state levels of a topical drug at the site of action also are maintained via appropriate application frequency, most commonly once to 4 times daily for dermatologic products. Fluocinonide and halcinonide are class II (potent) corticosteroids indicated for the relief of inflammatory and pruritic manifestations of corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses and usually are administered at least twice daily. In double-blind clinical studies comparing both products in the treatment of psoriasis, halcinonide resulted in more improved outcomes than fluocinonide.4-6 Sudilovsky and Clewe4 studied 140 patients with moderate to severe psoriasis. After 3 weeks of treatment, 44% showed superior results with halcinonide, 27% showed superior results with fluocinonide, 26% showed equal results with both products, and 3% showed no relief.4 Similarly, Close5 reported that 61% of patients showed superior results with halcinonide, 25% showed superior results with fluocinonide, 10% showed equal results with both products, and 4% showed no relief (N=50). Lynfield and Watsky6 reported that 56% of patients with severe psoriasis who were treated with halcinonide for 2 weeks showed improvement to normal or slight inflammation compared to 44% of patients treated with fluocinonide (N=59). All 3 studies used cream formulations of halcinonide and fluocinonide.
Recently, halcinonide cream was shown to have an immediate release into the stratum corneum that peaked within 1 hour of application and remained elevated for 6 hours before beginning to decline.7 These results support a biphasic release of halcinonide, which is in agreement with its formulation—that halcinonide exists in both a solution phase for immediate release into the skin and in a suspension phase that allows a sustained release after equilibrium is reached between the solution and suspension phases.8 Fluocinonide is not known to be formulated in a similar way. Its vehicle composition and penetration into the skin could explain the superior efficacy of halcinonide versus fluocinonide.
The current pilot study was conducted to compare the release pattern of fluocinonide cream versus halcinonide cream into the stratum corneum using an in vivo, noninvasive method. Results for halcin-onide have been previously published.7
Methods
Participants were sequestered in a controlled environment for the entire day to allow the skin to equilibrate prior to product application. The methodology for the application and quantification of halcinonide cream 0.1% into the stratum corneum of 5 participants using a tape-stripping protocol has been described elsewhere.7 Concordia Clinical Research institutional review board (Cedar Knolls, New Jersey) approved this study, which was conducted at Dermatology Consulting Services (High Point, North Carolina).
A 0.1-g dose of generic fluocinonide cream 0.05% was applied to four 2.5-cm circular sites on the forearm in 5 participants with normal skin until completely absorbed. Circular tape strips were subsequently placed on the application site at 1, 3, 6, and 9 hours posttreatment and were held for 10 seconds with a controlled pressure plunger to ensure adequate and consistent contact between the tape strip and the skin. The tape strip was removed with forceps, rolled with the skin scale inside, and placed in a glass vial. This procedure was repeated 6 times at 1 of 4 sites with a new tape strip at each time point to obtain samples from deeper skin layers. A total of 24 tape strips were collected from each participant.
All vials were frozen at -20°C and were shipped overnight to Robert Kellar, PhD, at the Center for Bioengineering Innovation at Northern Arizona University (Flagstaff, Arizona) for mass spectroscopy evaluation. Once received at the outside facility, the vials were stored at -20°C until analysis. Each sample was spiked with a known quantity of an appropriate reference standard and extracted with 1 mL acetonitrile at room temperature for 1 minute with agitation. New unused tape strips were spiked with a small amount of fluocinonide reference standard for extraction efficiency.
Extracts were evaporated to dryness under nitrogen gas, resuspended in 200 µL chromatography solvent, and quantified using liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry. To remove the skin scale from the tape strips, 10 mL of a solvent solution of 0.1 mg/mL fludrocortisone acetate in acetonitrile was dispensed into a 4 dram vial containing the tape strip. The vials were ultrasonicated and shaken for 10 to 15 minutes, and the samples were further diluted to 100-fold and were inverted several times to ensure complete dissolution of fluocinonide before liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry.
A standard curve ranging from the lower limit of quantification to the upper limit of quantification for the fluocinonide reference was used to determine the quantity of fluocinonide in each of the tape strips. Once the lower limit of quantification was reached in a given set of tape strip samples (1-, 3-, 6-, and 9-hour samples), the next 2 sequential tape strips in that set were analyzed to confirm fluocinonide was not detectable in deeper layers. Standard quality controls were analyzed to ensure run-to-run and sample-to-sample accuracy.
Each sample was analyzed in duplicate; 10 mg fluocinonide was used as a reference standard. The minimum detectable concentration of fluocinonide was 1 ng/mL.
Results
As expected, tape strip 1 from each participant contained the highest concentration of fluocinonide. This strip corresponded to the most superficial layer of skin. Concentrations decreased in deeper skin layers, as detected in strips 2 to 6.
In general, the average concentration of fluocin-onide in strip 1 for all 5 participants was highest at hour 1, with a subsequent decline at hours 3, 6, and 9; however, participant 1 showed a second peak in fluocinonide concentration at hour 6 (Figure 1). When the fluocinonide concentration in strips 1 to 6 was averaged for each participant at each time point, similar results were obtained: a general decline after hour 1, but a second prominent peak at hour 6 in participant 1 only. In participant 1, the average fluocinonide concentration for strips 1 to 6 was 393 ng/mL at hour 1 and declined to 208 ng/mL at hour 3; it increased to 451 ng/mL at hour 6 before declining again to 202 ng/mL at hour 9.
Because participant 1 was the only one to exhibit a second peak of fluocinonide concentration, it appears that measurements obtained from this participant may be outliers. When removing partici-pant 1 from the analysis of fluocinonide concentration in strip 1 at each time point, a clear decline is evident from hour 1 to hour 9 (Figure 2A, red line [partici-pants 2–5] vs blue line [participants 1–5]).
When the average concentration of fluocinonide was calculated in strips 1 to 6 from all participants, there was a general steady decline after hour 1 with a slight increase of 25 ng/mL at hour 6 (Figure 2B, blue line). This increase is due to the measurements obtained from participant 1; however, if partici-pant 1 is removed from the analysis, a constant decline is observed from hour 1 to hour 9 (Figure 2B, red line).
|
A prior study evaluated the penetration and absorption of halcinonide in the stratum corneum.7 In summary, halcinonide concentration peaked at hour 1 following application and remained elevated to hour 6, before beginning a slow decline. The average concentration of halcinonide from all participants in strips 1 to 6 reached 1350 ng/mL at hour 1, remained within 93% to 97% of this level (1253–1303 ng/mL) for the next 5 hours, and declined only 29% from the peak at hour 1 to hour 9 (958 ng/mL)(Figure 3, blue line).7 In contrast, the fluocinonide concentration in participants 2 to 5 from the current study reached 190 ng/mL at hour 1 and steadily declined 53% to 89 ng/mL by hour 9 (Figure 3, red line).
Two participants from the prior halcinonide study also were enrolled in the current fluocinonide study (referred to as participant A and B). In general, halcinonide levels in both participants remained elevated for 6 hours after application and declined 27.5% and 35.5%, respectively, by hour 9 (Figure 4). Participant A experienced a 20.5% dip in halcinonide concentration at hour 3 followed by an increase at hour 6; however, the halcinonide concentration at hour 9 was similar to hour 3.7 In contrast, fluocin-onide concentrations for these participants peaked at 1 hour and clearly declined approximately 60% over the next 8 hours.
Comment
The release of both fluocinonide and halcinonide into the skin was evaluated using dermal tape stripping on 4 sites on the forearms of healthy individuals. Cream formulations of each corticosteroid were evaluated in 5 participants, with 2 participants receiving both formulations during different study periods. In the prior study with halcinonide, the stratum corneum exhibited the highest concentration of the corticosteroid, with substantial declines beyond strip 6 (ie, strips 7–20).7 For this reason, only strips 1 to 6 were evaluated for corticosteroid penetration and absorption.
Results from strip 1 indicated immediate absorption of corticosteroid (fluocinonide and halcinonide) into the skin. Unlike the release of halcinonide, which demonstrated a clear sustained release over 6 hours before decreasing,7 fluocinonide concentrations began declining immediately after peaking at hour 1 and continued to decline up to hour 9. Only participant 1 exhibited a second peak of fluocinonide concentration at hour 6; the rest of the participants did not. This second peak is most likely an anomaly due to the small number of participants rather than a true elevation.
Given the rapid decline of fluocinonide concentration over the 9 hours compared with the more gradual decline of halcinonide concentration, there appears to be no evidence of a biphasic sustained release of fluocinonide from its vehicle. This difference in release pattern from each corticosteroid’s respective vehicle may explain in part the different clinical outcomes in comparative studies.4-6
It is known that vehicle composition affects corticosteroid diffusion from the vehicle to the skin surface and subsequent penetration into the skin.9 Either process can determine the overall effectiveness of the product. Ayres and Hooper10 evaluated the penetration of 4 topical preparations of cortisol. Product 1 delivered 16 times more cortisol to the skin than product 2, 8 times more than product 3, and 3 times more than product 4. Because all the preparations contained cortisol-free alcohol, these differences were attributed to the vehicle in which the cortisol was formulated. Products 1 and 4 both contained 10% urea, but the urea in product 1 was a powder in a cream base and the urea in product 4 was in a stabilizing emulsified base. Product 2 contained a propylene glycol/water base and product 3 was a water-miscible cream.10
Generic corticosteroid products have been observed in clinical practice and have been shown in vasoconstriction assays to be less and more potent than their brand-name equivalents.2,11 Vasoconstriction assays are the standard for assessing the potency of topical corticosteroids and predicting their clinical efficacy.2 One study reported significant differences in therapeutic effectiveness between generic formulations and their brand-name equivalents.12 Kenalog cream 0.1% (multiple manufacturers) was significantly more potent than any of the generic triamcinolone creams tested (P<.05); in fact, Kenalog cream 0.025% (multiple manufacturers) was statistically superior to all the generic triamcinolone creams 0.1%. Moreover, Artistocort A ointment 0.1% (Lederele Laboratories) and Valisone cream 0.1% (Schering Corporation) also were more potent than their generics at the same concentration in the same vehicle type.12 A second study also observed that 2 of 6 generic formulations had significantly less vasoconstriction than their respective brand-name formulations.11 A brand-name betamethasone valerate cream produced significantly greater vasoconstriction than its generic equivalent, and a brand-name betamethasone dipropionate cream produced greater vasoconstriction than one generic and equal vasoconstriction to another generic. Additionally, the vasoconstriction measured with Diprosone was greater than that measured with Diprolene, another brand-name product of betamethasone dipropionate.11 Diprosone and Diprolene differ in their vehicle content. The latter, a class I corticosteroid, contains a modified vehicle high in propylene glycol, whereas the former contains less propylene glycol and thus is classified as a class III corticosteroid. Propylene glycol allows hydrophobic molecules such as corticosteroids to dissolve more fully in the vehicle.12
Ostrenga et al1 studied the solubility of corticosteroids in different vehicles and, as expected, corticosteroids that fully solubilized in the vehicle exhibited better penetration into the skin on assessment with vasoconstriction assays. Corticosteroids in a suspension, on the other hand, showed slower penetration into the skin.1,13 A balance between the solution and suspension phase would allow a drug to rapidly penetrate the skin upon application, and when this pool of solubilized drug was depleted, additional drug could penetrate into the skin from the suspension phase. Based on the tape strip results from the current study it appears that halcinonide, which is manufactured in a biphasic formulation, follows this pattern of penetration and absorption into the stratum corneum. In contrast, fluocinonide appears to exist in a soluble state without much, if any, amount in a suspension phase because it had no sustained release during the 9 hours after application.
Common belief among dermatologists is that long-term use of corticosteroids leads to tachyphylaxis,14 which can be attributed to poor patient adherence. If patients skip doses, then the steady state of the product at the target site is not maintained. It is interesting to speculate that using agents with more sustained release beyond the time of application (such as halcinonide) may preserve steady-state levels even when patients are neglectful of the next medication application. Corticosteroids that work in 2 phases such as halcinonide may minimize tachyphylaxis experienced with prolonged use of corticosteroids.
Fluocinonide and halcinonide are both class II high-potency corticosteroids as shown on outcomes from vasoconstrictor assays, which assess the extent to which a corticosteroid causes cutaneous vasoconstriction or blanching in normal healthy individuals.15 The assay depends on the molecule diffusing from the vehicle, penetrating the skin, and causing a reaction (blanching) that is then evaluated. The assay cannot effectively evaluate the rate of continued diffusion and skin penetration beyond the appearance of blanching. In contrast, the tape-stripping method provides an inside look at the extent of penetration of the corticosteroid beyond the skin surface and the rate of its clearance from different skin layers. In the current study, the levels of fluocinonide declined after peaking at 1 hour after application, but the levels of halcinonide clearly remained elevated after peaking at the same time point. Most likely, vasoconstrictor studies would not be able to differentiate between the concentrations of the 2 products in the stratum corneum beyond the first hour after application.
Tape stripping, or dermatopharmacokinetics, has advantages over vasoconstriction assays in studying corticosteroid penetration and clearance from the stratum corneum. At one point, the US Food and Drug Administration had included tape stripping in its preliminary guidelines for generic topical bioequivalence studies until data from the same formulation generated from 2 different laboratories produced different results.16 Since that time, much work has been done with tape stripping to ensure its consistency. Weigmann et al17 demonstrated equivalent results with clobetasol using vasoconstriction and tape stripping, and Wiedersberg et al18 demonstrated the same with betamethasone. For the current study, the fluocinonide and halcinonide formulations were weighed prior to application so that the same dose was tested in all participants. A plunger was used to produce consistent pressure at all application sites to control for the amount of skin that was stripped off with the tape. Results for both corticosteroids were consistent between the participants. Variability in the data was detected; however, this observation is most likely due to the small number of participants in the studies.
Conclusion
In summary, this pilot study demonstrated that fluocinonide concentration in the stratum corneum peaks within the first hour of application before beginning a steady general decline. There was no evidence of sustained release. In contrast, halcin-onide demonstrated a sustained release for 6 hours after application. Halcinonide is formulated in a cream base in which the corticosteroid is present in a solution and suspension phase that allows for sustained delivery in skin over time. Fluocinonide does not appear to be formulated in the same way, and its concentrations in the stratum corneum begin to decline 1 hour after application.
Acknowledgement
Thank you to Robert Kellar, PhD, at the Center for Bioengineering Innovation at Northern Arizona University, Flagstaff, for conducting the liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry.
1. Ostrenga J, Haleblian J, Poulsen B, et al. Vehicle design for a new topical steroid, fluocinonide. J Invest Dermatol. 1971;56:392-399.
2. Rathi SK, D’Souza P. Rational and ethical use of topical corticosteroids based on safety and efficacy. Indian J Dermatol. 2012;57:251-259.
3. Housman TS, Mellen BG, Rapp SR, et al. Patients with psoriasis prefer solution and foam vehicles: a quantitative assessment of vehicle preference. Cutis. 2002;70:327-332.
4. Sudilovsky A, Clewe TH. Comparative efficacy of halcin-onide and fluocinonide creams in psoriasis and eczematous dermatoses. J Clin Pharmacol. 1975;15:779-784.
5. Close JE. Double-blind comparison of topical halcinonide and fluocinonide in the treatment of psoriasis. Int J Dermatol. 1976;15:534-537.
6. Lynfield Y, Watsky M. Psoriasis: topical corticosteroid therapy. Cutis. 1976;18:133, 136-137.
7. Draelos ZD. Demonstration of the biphasic release of 0.1% halcinonide cream. J Drugs Dermatol. 2015;14:89-90.
8. Bagatell FK. Halcinonide: a new potent topical anti-inflammatory drug. Cutis. 1974;14:459-462.
9. Ostrenga J, Steinmetz C, Poulsen B. Significance of vehicle composition. I. relationship between topical vehicle composition, skin penetrability, and clinical efficacy. J Pharm Sci. 1971;60:1175-1179.
10. Ayres PJ, Hooper G. Assessment of the skin penetration properties of different carrier vehicles for topically applied cortisol. Br J Dermatol. 1978;99:307-317.
11. Olsen EA. Double-blind controlled comparison of generic and trade-name topical steroids using the vasoconstriction assay. Arch Dermatol. 1991;127:197-201.
12. Stoughton RB. Are generic formulations equivalent to trade name topical glucocorticoids? Arch Dermatol. 1987;123:1312-1314.
13. Poulsen BJ, Young E, Coquilla V, et al. Effect of topical vehicle composition on the in vitro release of fluocinolone acetonide and its acetate ester. J Pharm Sci. 1968;57:928-933.
14. Taheri A, Cantrell J, Feldman SR. Tachyphylaxis to topical glucocorticoids: what is the evidence? Dermatol Online J. 2013;19:18954.
15. Ference JD, Last AR. Choosing topical corticosteroids. Am Fam Physician. 2009;79:135-140.
16. Pershing LK, Nelson JL, Corlett JL, et al. Assessment of dermatopharmacokinetic approach in the bioequivalence determination of topical tretinoin gel products. J Am Acad Dermatol. 2003;48:740-751.
17. Weigmann H, Lademann J, v Pelchrzim R, et al. Bioavailability of clobetasol propionate-quantification of drug concentrations in the stratum corneum by dermatopharmacokinetics using tape stripping. Skin Pharmacol Appl Skin Physiol. 1999;12:46-53.
18. Wiedersberg S, Naik A, Leopold CS, et al. Pharmacodynamics and dermatopharmacokinetics of betamethasone 17-valerate: assessment of topical bioavailability. Br J Dermatol. 2009;160:676-686.
The active ingredient of any pharmaceutical product is responsible for the agent’s efficacy and safety profile. This ingredient is extensively studied in clinical trials and evaluated by the US Food and Drug Administration before the product is commercially available. In dermatologic products, especially those for treating dermatoses, the vehicle in which the active ingredient is formulated also plays a role in drug delivery and indirectly impacts therapeutic outcomes, unlike excipients in oral medications. Topical vehicles must be stable, provide a suitable environment that will not degrade the active ingredient or affect its efficacy, and be cosmetically acceptable.1
Topical vehicles are formulated to maintain the stability of the active ingredient and allow it to readily penetrate the skin and reach its target area with minimal absorption into the bloodstream, thus avoiding systemic adverse events. A variety of vehicles can exist for a single active ingredient to accommodate different phases of disease and different anatomical sites where the disease may occur.2 For example, alcohol-based vehicles, sprays, and foams are preferred for the scalp where evaporation of the vehicle is beneficial to prevent greasiness of the hair, while ointments may be preferred due to their occlusive nature for areas with xerotic or thick skin from dermatoses.
Cosmetic acceptability of the vehicle may influence patient adherence to therapy. Housman et al3 assessed a variety of products formulated in different vehicles (ie, solutions, foams, emollients, gels, creams, ointments) for the treatment of psoriasis. Patients with psoriasis applied each test product to a quarter-sized area of normal skin on the forearm using a cotton swab and completed a preference questionnaire. By far, respondents significantly preferred solutions and foams over creams, gels, and ointments (P<.01). Side effects were rated to be the most important characteristics of topical therapy, followed by time needed for application, ease of application, and messiness.3 Presumably, if patients are frustrated with the topical product that they are using, adherence to the prescribed dosage and application instructions will diminish over time, leading to suboptimal steady-state levels of the product. If appropriate levels of the drug are not present at the target site, treatment will not be successful.
Steady-state levels of a topical drug at the site of action also are maintained via appropriate application frequency, most commonly once to 4 times daily for dermatologic products. Fluocinonide and halcinonide are class II (potent) corticosteroids indicated for the relief of inflammatory and pruritic manifestations of corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses and usually are administered at least twice daily. In double-blind clinical studies comparing both products in the treatment of psoriasis, halcinonide resulted in more improved outcomes than fluocinonide.4-6 Sudilovsky and Clewe4 studied 140 patients with moderate to severe psoriasis. After 3 weeks of treatment, 44% showed superior results with halcinonide, 27% showed superior results with fluocinonide, 26% showed equal results with both products, and 3% showed no relief.4 Similarly, Close5 reported that 61% of patients showed superior results with halcinonide, 25% showed superior results with fluocinonide, 10% showed equal results with both products, and 4% showed no relief (N=50). Lynfield and Watsky6 reported that 56% of patients with severe psoriasis who were treated with halcinonide for 2 weeks showed improvement to normal or slight inflammation compared to 44% of patients treated with fluocinonide (N=59). All 3 studies used cream formulations of halcinonide and fluocinonide.
Recently, halcinonide cream was shown to have an immediate release into the stratum corneum that peaked within 1 hour of application and remained elevated for 6 hours before beginning to decline.7 These results support a biphasic release of halcinonide, which is in agreement with its formulation—that halcinonide exists in both a solution phase for immediate release into the skin and in a suspension phase that allows a sustained release after equilibrium is reached between the solution and suspension phases.8 Fluocinonide is not known to be formulated in a similar way. Its vehicle composition and penetration into the skin could explain the superior efficacy of halcinonide versus fluocinonide.
The current pilot study was conducted to compare the release pattern of fluocinonide cream versus halcinonide cream into the stratum corneum using an in vivo, noninvasive method. Results for halcin-onide have been previously published.7
Methods
Participants were sequestered in a controlled environment for the entire day to allow the skin to equilibrate prior to product application. The methodology for the application and quantification of halcinonide cream 0.1% into the stratum corneum of 5 participants using a tape-stripping protocol has been described elsewhere.7 Concordia Clinical Research institutional review board (Cedar Knolls, New Jersey) approved this study, which was conducted at Dermatology Consulting Services (High Point, North Carolina).
A 0.1-g dose of generic fluocinonide cream 0.05% was applied to four 2.5-cm circular sites on the forearm in 5 participants with normal skin until completely absorbed. Circular tape strips were subsequently placed on the application site at 1, 3, 6, and 9 hours posttreatment and were held for 10 seconds with a controlled pressure plunger to ensure adequate and consistent contact between the tape strip and the skin. The tape strip was removed with forceps, rolled with the skin scale inside, and placed in a glass vial. This procedure was repeated 6 times at 1 of 4 sites with a new tape strip at each time point to obtain samples from deeper skin layers. A total of 24 tape strips were collected from each participant.
All vials were frozen at -20°C and were shipped overnight to Robert Kellar, PhD, at the Center for Bioengineering Innovation at Northern Arizona University (Flagstaff, Arizona) for mass spectroscopy evaluation. Once received at the outside facility, the vials were stored at -20°C until analysis. Each sample was spiked with a known quantity of an appropriate reference standard and extracted with 1 mL acetonitrile at room temperature for 1 minute with agitation. New unused tape strips were spiked with a small amount of fluocinonide reference standard for extraction efficiency.
Extracts were evaporated to dryness under nitrogen gas, resuspended in 200 µL chromatography solvent, and quantified using liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry. To remove the skin scale from the tape strips, 10 mL of a solvent solution of 0.1 mg/mL fludrocortisone acetate in acetonitrile was dispensed into a 4 dram vial containing the tape strip. The vials were ultrasonicated and shaken for 10 to 15 minutes, and the samples were further diluted to 100-fold and were inverted several times to ensure complete dissolution of fluocinonide before liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry.
A standard curve ranging from the lower limit of quantification to the upper limit of quantification for the fluocinonide reference was used to determine the quantity of fluocinonide in each of the tape strips. Once the lower limit of quantification was reached in a given set of tape strip samples (1-, 3-, 6-, and 9-hour samples), the next 2 sequential tape strips in that set were analyzed to confirm fluocinonide was not detectable in deeper layers. Standard quality controls were analyzed to ensure run-to-run and sample-to-sample accuracy.
Each sample was analyzed in duplicate; 10 mg fluocinonide was used as a reference standard. The minimum detectable concentration of fluocinonide was 1 ng/mL.
Results
As expected, tape strip 1 from each participant contained the highest concentration of fluocinonide. This strip corresponded to the most superficial layer of skin. Concentrations decreased in deeper skin layers, as detected in strips 2 to 6.
In general, the average concentration of fluocin-onide in strip 1 for all 5 participants was highest at hour 1, with a subsequent decline at hours 3, 6, and 9; however, participant 1 showed a second peak in fluocinonide concentration at hour 6 (Figure 1). When the fluocinonide concentration in strips 1 to 6 was averaged for each participant at each time point, similar results were obtained: a general decline after hour 1, but a second prominent peak at hour 6 in participant 1 only. In participant 1, the average fluocinonide concentration for strips 1 to 6 was 393 ng/mL at hour 1 and declined to 208 ng/mL at hour 3; it increased to 451 ng/mL at hour 6 before declining again to 202 ng/mL at hour 9.
Because participant 1 was the only one to exhibit a second peak of fluocinonide concentration, it appears that measurements obtained from this participant may be outliers. When removing partici-pant 1 from the analysis of fluocinonide concentration in strip 1 at each time point, a clear decline is evident from hour 1 to hour 9 (Figure 2A, red line [partici-pants 2–5] vs blue line [participants 1–5]).
When the average concentration of fluocinonide was calculated in strips 1 to 6 from all participants, there was a general steady decline after hour 1 with a slight increase of 25 ng/mL at hour 6 (Figure 2B, blue line). This increase is due to the measurements obtained from participant 1; however, if partici-pant 1 is removed from the analysis, a constant decline is observed from hour 1 to hour 9 (Figure 2B, red line).
|
A prior study evaluated the penetration and absorption of halcinonide in the stratum corneum.7 In summary, halcinonide concentration peaked at hour 1 following application and remained elevated to hour 6, before beginning a slow decline. The average concentration of halcinonide from all participants in strips 1 to 6 reached 1350 ng/mL at hour 1, remained within 93% to 97% of this level (1253–1303 ng/mL) for the next 5 hours, and declined only 29% from the peak at hour 1 to hour 9 (958 ng/mL)(Figure 3, blue line).7 In contrast, the fluocinonide concentration in participants 2 to 5 from the current study reached 190 ng/mL at hour 1 and steadily declined 53% to 89 ng/mL by hour 9 (Figure 3, red line).
Two participants from the prior halcinonide study also were enrolled in the current fluocinonide study (referred to as participant A and B). In general, halcinonide levels in both participants remained elevated for 6 hours after application and declined 27.5% and 35.5%, respectively, by hour 9 (Figure 4). Participant A experienced a 20.5% dip in halcinonide concentration at hour 3 followed by an increase at hour 6; however, the halcinonide concentration at hour 9 was similar to hour 3.7 In contrast, fluocin-onide concentrations for these participants peaked at 1 hour and clearly declined approximately 60% over the next 8 hours.
Comment
The release of both fluocinonide and halcinonide into the skin was evaluated using dermal tape stripping on 4 sites on the forearms of healthy individuals. Cream formulations of each corticosteroid were evaluated in 5 participants, with 2 participants receiving both formulations during different study periods. In the prior study with halcinonide, the stratum corneum exhibited the highest concentration of the corticosteroid, with substantial declines beyond strip 6 (ie, strips 7–20).7 For this reason, only strips 1 to 6 were evaluated for corticosteroid penetration and absorption.
Results from strip 1 indicated immediate absorption of corticosteroid (fluocinonide and halcinonide) into the skin. Unlike the release of halcinonide, which demonstrated a clear sustained release over 6 hours before decreasing,7 fluocinonide concentrations began declining immediately after peaking at hour 1 and continued to decline up to hour 9. Only participant 1 exhibited a second peak of fluocinonide concentration at hour 6; the rest of the participants did not. This second peak is most likely an anomaly due to the small number of participants rather than a true elevation.
Given the rapid decline of fluocinonide concentration over the 9 hours compared with the more gradual decline of halcinonide concentration, there appears to be no evidence of a biphasic sustained release of fluocinonide from its vehicle. This difference in release pattern from each corticosteroid’s respective vehicle may explain in part the different clinical outcomes in comparative studies.4-6
It is known that vehicle composition affects corticosteroid diffusion from the vehicle to the skin surface and subsequent penetration into the skin.9 Either process can determine the overall effectiveness of the product. Ayres and Hooper10 evaluated the penetration of 4 topical preparations of cortisol. Product 1 delivered 16 times more cortisol to the skin than product 2, 8 times more than product 3, and 3 times more than product 4. Because all the preparations contained cortisol-free alcohol, these differences were attributed to the vehicle in which the cortisol was formulated. Products 1 and 4 both contained 10% urea, but the urea in product 1 was a powder in a cream base and the urea in product 4 was in a stabilizing emulsified base. Product 2 contained a propylene glycol/water base and product 3 was a water-miscible cream.10
Generic corticosteroid products have been observed in clinical practice and have been shown in vasoconstriction assays to be less and more potent than their brand-name equivalents.2,11 Vasoconstriction assays are the standard for assessing the potency of topical corticosteroids and predicting their clinical efficacy.2 One study reported significant differences in therapeutic effectiveness between generic formulations and their brand-name equivalents.12 Kenalog cream 0.1% (multiple manufacturers) was significantly more potent than any of the generic triamcinolone creams tested (P<.05); in fact, Kenalog cream 0.025% (multiple manufacturers) was statistically superior to all the generic triamcinolone creams 0.1%. Moreover, Artistocort A ointment 0.1% (Lederele Laboratories) and Valisone cream 0.1% (Schering Corporation) also were more potent than their generics at the same concentration in the same vehicle type.12 A second study also observed that 2 of 6 generic formulations had significantly less vasoconstriction than their respective brand-name formulations.11 A brand-name betamethasone valerate cream produced significantly greater vasoconstriction than its generic equivalent, and a brand-name betamethasone dipropionate cream produced greater vasoconstriction than one generic and equal vasoconstriction to another generic. Additionally, the vasoconstriction measured with Diprosone was greater than that measured with Diprolene, another brand-name product of betamethasone dipropionate.11 Diprosone and Diprolene differ in their vehicle content. The latter, a class I corticosteroid, contains a modified vehicle high in propylene glycol, whereas the former contains less propylene glycol and thus is classified as a class III corticosteroid. Propylene glycol allows hydrophobic molecules such as corticosteroids to dissolve more fully in the vehicle.12
Ostrenga et al1 studied the solubility of corticosteroids in different vehicles and, as expected, corticosteroids that fully solubilized in the vehicle exhibited better penetration into the skin on assessment with vasoconstriction assays. Corticosteroids in a suspension, on the other hand, showed slower penetration into the skin.1,13 A balance between the solution and suspension phase would allow a drug to rapidly penetrate the skin upon application, and when this pool of solubilized drug was depleted, additional drug could penetrate into the skin from the suspension phase. Based on the tape strip results from the current study it appears that halcinonide, which is manufactured in a biphasic formulation, follows this pattern of penetration and absorption into the stratum corneum. In contrast, fluocinonide appears to exist in a soluble state without much, if any, amount in a suspension phase because it had no sustained release during the 9 hours after application.
Common belief among dermatologists is that long-term use of corticosteroids leads to tachyphylaxis,14 which can be attributed to poor patient adherence. If patients skip doses, then the steady state of the product at the target site is not maintained. It is interesting to speculate that using agents with more sustained release beyond the time of application (such as halcinonide) may preserve steady-state levels even when patients are neglectful of the next medication application. Corticosteroids that work in 2 phases such as halcinonide may minimize tachyphylaxis experienced with prolonged use of corticosteroids.
Fluocinonide and halcinonide are both class II high-potency corticosteroids as shown on outcomes from vasoconstrictor assays, which assess the extent to which a corticosteroid causes cutaneous vasoconstriction or blanching in normal healthy individuals.15 The assay depends on the molecule diffusing from the vehicle, penetrating the skin, and causing a reaction (blanching) that is then evaluated. The assay cannot effectively evaluate the rate of continued diffusion and skin penetration beyond the appearance of blanching. In contrast, the tape-stripping method provides an inside look at the extent of penetration of the corticosteroid beyond the skin surface and the rate of its clearance from different skin layers. In the current study, the levels of fluocinonide declined after peaking at 1 hour after application, but the levels of halcinonide clearly remained elevated after peaking at the same time point. Most likely, vasoconstrictor studies would not be able to differentiate between the concentrations of the 2 products in the stratum corneum beyond the first hour after application.
Tape stripping, or dermatopharmacokinetics, has advantages over vasoconstriction assays in studying corticosteroid penetration and clearance from the stratum corneum. At one point, the US Food and Drug Administration had included tape stripping in its preliminary guidelines for generic topical bioequivalence studies until data from the same formulation generated from 2 different laboratories produced different results.16 Since that time, much work has been done with tape stripping to ensure its consistency. Weigmann et al17 demonstrated equivalent results with clobetasol using vasoconstriction and tape stripping, and Wiedersberg et al18 demonstrated the same with betamethasone. For the current study, the fluocinonide and halcinonide formulations were weighed prior to application so that the same dose was tested in all participants. A plunger was used to produce consistent pressure at all application sites to control for the amount of skin that was stripped off with the tape. Results for both corticosteroids were consistent between the participants. Variability in the data was detected; however, this observation is most likely due to the small number of participants in the studies.
Conclusion
In summary, this pilot study demonstrated that fluocinonide concentration in the stratum corneum peaks within the first hour of application before beginning a steady general decline. There was no evidence of sustained release. In contrast, halcin-onide demonstrated a sustained release for 6 hours after application. Halcinonide is formulated in a cream base in which the corticosteroid is present in a solution and suspension phase that allows for sustained delivery in skin over time. Fluocinonide does not appear to be formulated in the same way, and its concentrations in the stratum corneum begin to decline 1 hour after application.
Acknowledgement
Thank you to Robert Kellar, PhD, at the Center for Bioengineering Innovation at Northern Arizona University, Flagstaff, for conducting the liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry.
The active ingredient of any pharmaceutical product is responsible for the agent’s efficacy and safety profile. This ingredient is extensively studied in clinical trials and evaluated by the US Food and Drug Administration before the product is commercially available. In dermatologic products, especially those for treating dermatoses, the vehicle in which the active ingredient is formulated also plays a role in drug delivery and indirectly impacts therapeutic outcomes, unlike excipients in oral medications. Topical vehicles must be stable, provide a suitable environment that will not degrade the active ingredient or affect its efficacy, and be cosmetically acceptable.1
Topical vehicles are formulated to maintain the stability of the active ingredient and allow it to readily penetrate the skin and reach its target area with minimal absorption into the bloodstream, thus avoiding systemic adverse events. A variety of vehicles can exist for a single active ingredient to accommodate different phases of disease and different anatomical sites where the disease may occur.2 For example, alcohol-based vehicles, sprays, and foams are preferred for the scalp where evaporation of the vehicle is beneficial to prevent greasiness of the hair, while ointments may be preferred due to their occlusive nature for areas with xerotic or thick skin from dermatoses.
Cosmetic acceptability of the vehicle may influence patient adherence to therapy. Housman et al3 assessed a variety of products formulated in different vehicles (ie, solutions, foams, emollients, gels, creams, ointments) for the treatment of psoriasis. Patients with psoriasis applied each test product to a quarter-sized area of normal skin on the forearm using a cotton swab and completed a preference questionnaire. By far, respondents significantly preferred solutions and foams over creams, gels, and ointments (P<.01). Side effects were rated to be the most important characteristics of topical therapy, followed by time needed for application, ease of application, and messiness.3 Presumably, if patients are frustrated with the topical product that they are using, adherence to the prescribed dosage and application instructions will diminish over time, leading to suboptimal steady-state levels of the product. If appropriate levels of the drug are not present at the target site, treatment will not be successful.
Steady-state levels of a topical drug at the site of action also are maintained via appropriate application frequency, most commonly once to 4 times daily for dermatologic products. Fluocinonide and halcinonide are class II (potent) corticosteroids indicated for the relief of inflammatory and pruritic manifestations of corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses and usually are administered at least twice daily. In double-blind clinical studies comparing both products in the treatment of psoriasis, halcinonide resulted in more improved outcomes than fluocinonide.4-6 Sudilovsky and Clewe4 studied 140 patients with moderate to severe psoriasis. After 3 weeks of treatment, 44% showed superior results with halcinonide, 27% showed superior results with fluocinonide, 26% showed equal results with both products, and 3% showed no relief.4 Similarly, Close5 reported that 61% of patients showed superior results with halcinonide, 25% showed superior results with fluocinonide, 10% showed equal results with both products, and 4% showed no relief (N=50). Lynfield and Watsky6 reported that 56% of patients with severe psoriasis who were treated with halcinonide for 2 weeks showed improvement to normal or slight inflammation compared to 44% of patients treated with fluocinonide (N=59). All 3 studies used cream formulations of halcinonide and fluocinonide.
Recently, halcinonide cream was shown to have an immediate release into the stratum corneum that peaked within 1 hour of application and remained elevated for 6 hours before beginning to decline.7 These results support a biphasic release of halcinonide, which is in agreement with its formulation—that halcinonide exists in both a solution phase for immediate release into the skin and in a suspension phase that allows a sustained release after equilibrium is reached between the solution and suspension phases.8 Fluocinonide is not known to be formulated in a similar way. Its vehicle composition and penetration into the skin could explain the superior efficacy of halcinonide versus fluocinonide.
The current pilot study was conducted to compare the release pattern of fluocinonide cream versus halcinonide cream into the stratum corneum using an in vivo, noninvasive method. Results for halcin-onide have been previously published.7
Methods
Participants were sequestered in a controlled environment for the entire day to allow the skin to equilibrate prior to product application. The methodology for the application and quantification of halcinonide cream 0.1% into the stratum corneum of 5 participants using a tape-stripping protocol has been described elsewhere.7 Concordia Clinical Research institutional review board (Cedar Knolls, New Jersey) approved this study, which was conducted at Dermatology Consulting Services (High Point, North Carolina).
A 0.1-g dose of generic fluocinonide cream 0.05% was applied to four 2.5-cm circular sites on the forearm in 5 participants with normal skin until completely absorbed. Circular tape strips were subsequently placed on the application site at 1, 3, 6, and 9 hours posttreatment and were held for 10 seconds with a controlled pressure plunger to ensure adequate and consistent contact between the tape strip and the skin. The tape strip was removed with forceps, rolled with the skin scale inside, and placed in a glass vial. This procedure was repeated 6 times at 1 of 4 sites with a new tape strip at each time point to obtain samples from deeper skin layers. A total of 24 tape strips were collected from each participant.
All vials were frozen at -20°C and were shipped overnight to Robert Kellar, PhD, at the Center for Bioengineering Innovation at Northern Arizona University (Flagstaff, Arizona) for mass spectroscopy evaluation. Once received at the outside facility, the vials were stored at -20°C until analysis. Each sample was spiked with a known quantity of an appropriate reference standard and extracted with 1 mL acetonitrile at room temperature for 1 minute with agitation. New unused tape strips were spiked with a small amount of fluocinonide reference standard for extraction efficiency.
Extracts were evaporated to dryness under nitrogen gas, resuspended in 200 µL chromatography solvent, and quantified using liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry. To remove the skin scale from the tape strips, 10 mL of a solvent solution of 0.1 mg/mL fludrocortisone acetate in acetonitrile was dispensed into a 4 dram vial containing the tape strip. The vials were ultrasonicated and shaken for 10 to 15 minutes, and the samples were further diluted to 100-fold and were inverted several times to ensure complete dissolution of fluocinonide before liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry.
A standard curve ranging from the lower limit of quantification to the upper limit of quantification for the fluocinonide reference was used to determine the quantity of fluocinonide in each of the tape strips. Once the lower limit of quantification was reached in a given set of tape strip samples (1-, 3-, 6-, and 9-hour samples), the next 2 sequential tape strips in that set were analyzed to confirm fluocinonide was not detectable in deeper layers. Standard quality controls were analyzed to ensure run-to-run and sample-to-sample accuracy.
Each sample was analyzed in duplicate; 10 mg fluocinonide was used as a reference standard. The minimum detectable concentration of fluocinonide was 1 ng/mL.
Results
As expected, tape strip 1 from each participant contained the highest concentration of fluocinonide. This strip corresponded to the most superficial layer of skin. Concentrations decreased in deeper skin layers, as detected in strips 2 to 6.
In general, the average concentration of fluocin-onide in strip 1 for all 5 participants was highest at hour 1, with a subsequent decline at hours 3, 6, and 9; however, participant 1 showed a second peak in fluocinonide concentration at hour 6 (Figure 1). When the fluocinonide concentration in strips 1 to 6 was averaged for each participant at each time point, similar results were obtained: a general decline after hour 1, but a second prominent peak at hour 6 in participant 1 only. In participant 1, the average fluocinonide concentration for strips 1 to 6 was 393 ng/mL at hour 1 and declined to 208 ng/mL at hour 3; it increased to 451 ng/mL at hour 6 before declining again to 202 ng/mL at hour 9.
Because participant 1 was the only one to exhibit a second peak of fluocinonide concentration, it appears that measurements obtained from this participant may be outliers. When removing partici-pant 1 from the analysis of fluocinonide concentration in strip 1 at each time point, a clear decline is evident from hour 1 to hour 9 (Figure 2A, red line [partici-pants 2–5] vs blue line [participants 1–5]).
When the average concentration of fluocinonide was calculated in strips 1 to 6 from all participants, there was a general steady decline after hour 1 with a slight increase of 25 ng/mL at hour 6 (Figure 2B, blue line). This increase is due to the measurements obtained from participant 1; however, if partici-pant 1 is removed from the analysis, a constant decline is observed from hour 1 to hour 9 (Figure 2B, red line).
|
A prior study evaluated the penetration and absorption of halcinonide in the stratum corneum.7 In summary, halcinonide concentration peaked at hour 1 following application and remained elevated to hour 6, before beginning a slow decline. The average concentration of halcinonide from all participants in strips 1 to 6 reached 1350 ng/mL at hour 1, remained within 93% to 97% of this level (1253–1303 ng/mL) for the next 5 hours, and declined only 29% from the peak at hour 1 to hour 9 (958 ng/mL)(Figure 3, blue line).7 In contrast, the fluocinonide concentration in participants 2 to 5 from the current study reached 190 ng/mL at hour 1 and steadily declined 53% to 89 ng/mL by hour 9 (Figure 3, red line).
Two participants from the prior halcinonide study also were enrolled in the current fluocinonide study (referred to as participant A and B). In general, halcinonide levels in both participants remained elevated for 6 hours after application and declined 27.5% and 35.5%, respectively, by hour 9 (Figure 4). Participant A experienced a 20.5% dip in halcinonide concentration at hour 3 followed by an increase at hour 6; however, the halcinonide concentration at hour 9 was similar to hour 3.7 In contrast, fluocin-onide concentrations for these participants peaked at 1 hour and clearly declined approximately 60% over the next 8 hours.
Comment
The release of both fluocinonide and halcinonide into the skin was evaluated using dermal tape stripping on 4 sites on the forearms of healthy individuals. Cream formulations of each corticosteroid were evaluated in 5 participants, with 2 participants receiving both formulations during different study periods. In the prior study with halcinonide, the stratum corneum exhibited the highest concentration of the corticosteroid, with substantial declines beyond strip 6 (ie, strips 7–20).7 For this reason, only strips 1 to 6 were evaluated for corticosteroid penetration and absorption.
Results from strip 1 indicated immediate absorption of corticosteroid (fluocinonide and halcinonide) into the skin. Unlike the release of halcinonide, which demonstrated a clear sustained release over 6 hours before decreasing,7 fluocinonide concentrations began declining immediately after peaking at hour 1 and continued to decline up to hour 9. Only participant 1 exhibited a second peak of fluocinonide concentration at hour 6; the rest of the participants did not. This second peak is most likely an anomaly due to the small number of participants rather than a true elevation.
Given the rapid decline of fluocinonide concentration over the 9 hours compared with the more gradual decline of halcinonide concentration, there appears to be no evidence of a biphasic sustained release of fluocinonide from its vehicle. This difference in release pattern from each corticosteroid’s respective vehicle may explain in part the different clinical outcomes in comparative studies.4-6
It is known that vehicle composition affects corticosteroid diffusion from the vehicle to the skin surface and subsequent penetration into the skin.9 Either process can determine the overall effectiveness of the product. Ayres and Hooper10 evaluated the penetration of 4 topical preparations of cortisol. Product 1 delivered 16 times more cortisol to the skin than product 2, 8 times more than product 3, and 3 times more than product 4. Because all the preparations contained cortisol-free alcohol, these differences were attributed to the vehicle in which the cortisol was formulated. Products 1 and 4 both contained 10% urea, but the urea in product 1 was a powder in a cream base and the urea in product 4 was in a stabilizing emulsified base. Product 2 contained a propylene glycol/water base and product 3 was a water-miscible cream.10
Generic corticosteroid products have been observed in clinical practice and have been shown in vasoconstriction assays to be less and more potent than their brand-name equivalents.2,11 Vasoconstriction assays are the standard for assessing the potency of topical corticosteroids and predicting their clinical efficacy.2 One study reported significant differences in therapeutic effectiveness between generic formulations and their brand-name equivalents.12 Kenalog cream 0.1% (multiple manufacturers) was significantly more potent than any of the generic triamcinolone creams tested (P<.05); in fact, Kenalog cream 0.025% (multiple manufacturers) was statistically superior to all the generic triamcinolone creams 0.1%. Moreover, Artistocort A ointment 0.1% (Lederele Laboratories) and Valisone cream 0.1% (Schering Corporation) also were more potent than their generics at the same concentration in the same vehicle type.12 A second study also observed that 2 of 6 generic formulations had significantly less vasoconstriction than their respective brand-name formulations.11 A brand-name betamethasone valerate cream produced significantly greater vasoconstriction than its generic equivalent, and a brand-name betamethasone dipropionate cream produced greater vasoconstriction than one generic and equal vasoconstriction to another generic. Additionally, the vasoconstriction measured with Diprosone was greater than that measured with Diprolene, another brand-name product of betamethasone dipropionate.11 Diprosone and Diprolene differ in their vehicle content. The latter, a class I corticosteroid, contains a modified vehicle high in propylene glycol, whereas the former contains less propylene glycol and thus is classified as a class III corticosteroid. Propylene glycol allows hydrophobic molecules such as corticosteroids to dissolve more fully in the vehicle.12
Ostrenga et al1 studied the solubility of corticosteroids in different vehicles and, as expected, corticosteroids that fully solubilized in the vehicle exhibited better penetration into the skin on assessment with vasoconstriction assays. Corticosteroids in a suspension, on the other hand, showed slower penetration into the skin.1,13 A balance between the solution and suspension phase would allow a drug to rapidly penetrate the skin upon application, and when this pool of solubilized drug was depleted, additional drug could penetrate into the skin from the suspension phase. Based on the tape strip results from the current study it appears that halcinonide, which is manufactured in a biphasic formulation, follows this pattern of penetration and absorption into the stratum corneum. In contrast, fluocinonide appears to exist in a soluble state without much, if any, amount in a suspension phase because it had no sustained release during the 9 hours after application.
Common belief among dermatologists is that long-term use of corticosteroids leads to tachyphylaxis,14 which can be attributed to poor patient adherence. If patients skip doses, then the steady state of the product at the target site is not maintained. It is interesting to speculate that using agents with more sustained release beyond the time of application (such as halcinonide) may preserve steady-state levels even when patients are neglectful of the next medication application. Corticosteroids that work in 2 phases such as halcinonide may minimize tachyphylaxis experienced with prolonged use of corticosteroids.
Fluocinonide and halcinonide are both class II high-potency corticosteroids as shown on outcomes from vasoconstrictor assays, which assess the extent to which a corticosteroid causes cutaneous vasoconstriction or blanching in normal healthy individuals.15 The assay depends on the molecule diffusing from the vehicle, penetrating the skin, and causing a reaction (blanching) that is then evaluated. The assay cannot effectively evaluate the rate of continued diffusion and skin penetration beyond the appearance of blanching. In contrast, the tape-stripping method provides an inside look at the extent of penetration of the corticosteroid beyond the skin surface and the rate of its clearance from different skin layers. In the current study, the levels of fluocinonide declined after peaking at 1 hour after application, but the levels of halcinonide clearly remained elevated after peaking at the same time point. Most likely, vasoconstrictor studies would not be able to differentiate between the concentrations of the 2 products in the stratum corneum beyond the first hour after application.
Tape stripping, or dermatopharmacokinetics, has advantages over vasoconstriction assays in studying corticosteroid penetration and clearance from the stratum corneum. At one point, the US Food and Drug Administration had included tape stripping in its preliminary guidelines for generic topical bioequivalence studies until data from the same formulation generated from 2 different laboratories produced different results.16 Since that time, much work has been done with tape stripping to ensure its consistency. Weigmann et al17 demonstrated equivalent results with clobetasol using vasoconstriction and tape stripping, and Wiedersberg et al18 demonstrated the same with betamethasone. For the current study, the fluocinonide and halcinonide formulations were weighed prior to application so that the same dose was tested in all participants. A plunger was used to produce consistent pressure at all application sites to control for the amount of skin that was stripped off with the tape. Results for both corticosteroids were consistent between the participants. Variability in the data was detected; however, this observation is most likely due to the small number of participants in the studies.
Conclusion
In summary, this pilot study demonstrated that fluocinonide concentration in the stratum corneum peaks within the first hour of application before beginning a steady general decline. There was no evidence of sustained release. In contrast, halcin-onide demonstrated a sustained release for 6 hours after application. Halcinonide is formulated in a cream base in which the corticosteroid is present in a solution and suspension phase that allows for sustained delivery in skin over time. Fluocinonide does not appear to be formulated in the same way, and its concentrations in the stratum corneum begin to decline 1 hour after application.
Acknowledgement
Thank you to Robert Kellar, PhD, at the Center for Bioengineering Innovation at Northern Arizona University, Flagstaff, for conducting the liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry.
1. Ostrenga J, Haleblian J, Poulsen B, et al. Vehicle design for a new topical steroid, fluocinonide. J Invest Dermatol. 1971;56:392-399.
2. Rathi SK, D’Souza P. Rational and ethical use of topical corticosteroids based on safety and efficacy. Indian J Dermatol. 2012;57:251-259.
3. Housman TS, Mellen BG, Rapp SR, et al. Patients with psoriasis prefer solution and foam vehicles: a quantitative assessment of vehicle preference. Cutis. 2002;70:327-332.
4. Sudilovsky A, Clewe TH. Comparative efficacy of halcin-onide and fluocinonide creams in psoriasis and eczematous dermatoses. J Clin Pharmacol. 1975;15:779-784.
5. Close JE. Double-blind comparison of topical halcinonide and fluocinonide in the treatment of psoriasis. Int J Dermatol. 1976;15:534-537.
6. Lynfield Y, Watsky M. Psoriasis: topical corticosteroid therapy. Cutis. 1976;18:133, 136-137.
7. Draelos ZD. Demonstration of the biphasic release of 0.1% halcinonide cream. J Drugs Dermatol. 2015;14:89-90.
8. Bagatell FK. Halcinonide: a new potent topical anti-inflammatory drug. Cutis. 1974;14:459-462.
9. Ostrenga J, Steinmetz C, Poulsen B. Significance of vehicle composition. I. relationship between topical vehicle composition, skin penetrability, and clinical efficacy. J Pharm Sci. 1971;60:1175-1179.
10. Ayres PJ, Hooper G. Assessment of the skin penetration properties of different carrier vehicles for topically applied cortisol. Br J Dermatol. 1978;99:307-317.
11. Olsen EA. Double-blind controlled comparison of generic and trade-name topical steroids using the vasoconstriction assay. Arch Dermatol. 1991;127:197-201.
12. Stoughton RB. Are generic formulations equivalent to trade name topical glucocorticoids? Arch Dermatol. 1987;123:1312-1314.
13. Poulsen BJ, Young E, Coquilla V, et al. Effect of topical vehicle composition on the in vitro release of fluocinolone acetonide and its acetate ester. J Pharm Sci. 1968;57:928-933.
14. Taheri A, Cantrell J, Feldman SR. Tachyphylaxis to topical glucocorticoids: what is the evidence? Dermatol Online J. 2013;19:18954.
15. Ference JD, Last AR. Choosing topical corticosteroids. Am Fam Physician. 2009;79:135-140.
16. Pershing LK, Nelson JL, Corlett JL, et al. Assessment of dermatopharmacokinetic approach in the bioequivalence determination of topical tretinoin gel products. J Am Acad Dermatol. 2003;48:740-751.
17. Weigmann H, Lademann J, v Pelchrzim R, et al. Bioavailability of clobetasol propionate-quantification of drug concentrations in the stratum corneum by dermatopharmacokinetics using tape stripping. Skin Pharmacol Appl Skin Physiol. 1999;12:46-53.
18. Wiedersberg S, Naik A, Leopold CS, et al. Pharmacodynamics and dermatopharmacokinetics of betamethasone 17-valerate: assessment of topical bioavailability. Br J Dermatol. 2009;160:676-686.
1. Ostrenga J, Haleblian J, Poulsen B, et al. Vehicle design for a new topical steroid, fluocinonide. J Invest Dermatol. 1971;56:392-399.
2. Rathi SK, D’Souza P. Rational and ethical use of topical corticosteroids based on safety and efficacy. Indian J Dermatol. 2012;57:251-259.
3. Housman TS, Mellen BG, Rapp SR, et al. Patients with psoriasis prefer solution and foam vehicles: a quantitative assessment of vehicle preference. Cutis. 2002;70:327-332.
4. Sudilovsky A, Clewe TH. Comparative efficacy of halcin-onide and fluocinonide creams in psoriasis and eczematous dermatoses. J Clin Pharmacol. 1975;15:779-784.
5. Close JE. Double-blind comparison of topical halcinonide and fluocinonide in the treatment of psoriasis. Int J Dermatol. 1976;15:534-537.
6. Lynfield Y, Watsky M. Psoriasis: topical corticosteroid therapy. Cutis. 1976;18:133, 136-137.
7. Draelos ZD. Demonstration of the biphasic release of 0.1% halcinonide cream. J Drugs Dermatol. 2015;14:89-90.
8. Bagatell FK. Halcinonide: a new potent topical anti-inflammatory drug. Cutis. 1974;14:459-462.
9. Ostrenga J, Steinmetz C, Poulsen B. Significance of vehicle composition. I. relationship between topical vehicle composition, skin penetrability, and clinical efficacy. J Pharm Sci. 1971;60:1175-1179.
10. Ayres PJ, Hooper G. Assessment of the skin penetration properties of different carrier vehicles for topically applied cortisol. Br J Dermatol. 1978;99:307-317.
11. Olsen EA. Double-blind controlled comparison of generic and trade-name topical steroids using the vasoconstriction assay. Arch Dermatol. 1991;127:197-201.
12. Stoughton RB. Are generic formulations equivalent to trade name topical glucocorticoids? Arch Dermatol. 1987;123:1312-1314.
13. Poulsen BJ, Young E, Coquilla V, et al. Effect of topical vehicle composition on the in vitro release of fluocinolone acetonide and its acetate ester. J Pharm Sci. 1968;57:928-933.
14. Taheri A, Cantrell J, Feldman SR. Tachyphylaxis to topical glucocorticoids: what is the evidence? Dermatol Online J. 2013;19:18954.
15. Ference JD, Last AR. Choosing topical corticosteroids. Am Fam Physician. 2009;79:135-140.
16. Pershing LK, Nelson JL, Corlett JL, et al. Assessment of dermatopharmacokinetic approach in the bioequivalence determination of topical tretinoin gel products. J Am Acad Dermatol. 2003;48:740-751.
17. Weigmann H, Lademann J, v Pelchrzim R, et al. Bioavailability of clobetasol propionate-quantification of drug concentrations in the stratum corneum by dermatopharmacokinetics using tape stripping. Skin Pharmacol Appl Skin Physiol. 1999;12:46-53.
18. Wiedersberg S, Naik A, Leopold CS, et al. Pharmacodynamics and dermatopharmacokinetics of betamethasone 17-valerate: assessment of topical bioavailability. Br J Dermatol. 2009;160:676-686.
Practice Points
- Fluocinonide concentration in the stratum corneum peaks within the first hour of application and then begins a steady decline.
- Halcinonide concentration also peaks within the first hour of application and remains elevated for 6 hours after application.
- Halcinonide, rather than fluocinonide, may provide clinical benefits in between doses because of its sustained release hours after application.