For the first time since detailed measurement began in 2000, there was no significant difference in autism prevalence between black and white 8-year-olds in 2016, according to data from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

MDedge News

The latest analysis from the CDC’s Autism and Developmental Disabilities Monitoring (ADDM) Network puts the prevalence of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) at 18.3 per 1,000 children aged 8 years among black children and 18.5 per 1,000 in white children, Matthew J. Maenner, PhD, and associates said in MMWR Surveillance Summaries. Overall prevalence was 18.5 per 1,000 children, or 1 in 54 children, aged 8 years.

“This diminishing disparity in ASD prevalence might signify progress toward earlier and more equitable identification of ASD,” they wrote, while also noting that “black children with ASD were more likely than white children to have an intellectual disability” and were less likely to undergo evaluation by age 36 months.

Among non-Hispanic white children, 45.3% had received a comprehensive evaluation for ASD before the age of 36 months, compared with 39.8% of non-Hispanic black children and 42.9% of Hispanic children, said Dr. Maenner of the CDC’s National Center on Birth Defects and Developmental Disabilities.

The overall rate of early evaluation was 44% for the cohort of 3,981 children who were born in 2008 and included in the 2016 analysis of the 11 ADDM Network sites, they reported.

There was, however, considerable variation in the timing of that initial evaluation for ASD among the sites, which largely consisted of one to seven counties in most states, except for Arkansas (all 75 counties), Tennessee (11 counties), and Wisconsin (10 counties), Dr. Maenner and associates noted.

The two ADDM Network sites at the extremes of that variation were North Carolina and Arkansas. In North Carolina, almost twice as many children (62.3%) had an evaluation by 36 months than in Arkansas (32.6%), although Arkansas closed the gap a bit by evaluating 21.8% of children aged 37-48 months, compared with 11.3% in North Carolina, the investigators said.

“ASD continues to be a public health concern; the latest data from the ADDM Network underscore the ongoing need for timely and accessible developmental assessments, educational supports, and services for persons with ASD and their families,” they concluded.

rfranki@mdedge.com

SOURCE: Maenner MJ et al. MMWR Surveill Summ. 2020 Mar 27;69(SS-4):1-12.

For the first time since detailed measurement began in 2000, there was no significant difference in autism prevalence between black and white 8-year-olds in 2016, according to data from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

MDedge News

The latest analysis from the CDC’s Autism and Developmental Disabilities Monitoring (ADDM) Network puts the prevalence of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) at 18.3 per 1,000 children aged 8 years among black children and 18.5 per 1,000 in white children, Matthew J. Maenner, PhD, and associates said in MMWR Surveillance Summaries. Overall prevalence was 18.5 per 1,000 children, or 1 in 54 children, aged 8 years.

“This diminishing disparity in ASD prevalence might signify progress toward earlier and more equitable identification of ASD,” they wrote, while also noting that “black children with ASD were more likely than white children to have an intellectual disability” and were less likely to undergo evaluation by age 36 months.

Among non-Hispanic white children, 45.3% had received a comprehensive evaluation for ASD before the age of 36 months, compared with 39.8% of non-Hispanic black children and 42.9% of Hispanic children, said Dr. Maenner of the CDC’s National Center on Birth Defects and Developmental Disabilities.

The overall rate of early evaluation was 44% for the cohort of 3,981 children who were born in 2008 and included in the 2016 analysis of the 11 ADDM Network sites, they reported.

There was, however, considerable variation in the timing of that initial evaluation for ASD among the sites, which largely consisted of one to seven counties in most states, except for Arkansas (all 75 counties), Tennessee (11 counties), and Wisconsin (10 counties), Dr. Maenner and associates noted.

The two ADDM Network sites at the extremes of that variation were North Carolina and Arkansas. In North Carolina, almost twice as many children (62.3%) had an evaluation by 36 months than in Arkansas (32.6%), although Arkansas closed the gap a bit by evaluating 21.8% of children aged 37-48 months, compared with 11.3% in North Carolina, the investigators said.

“ASD continues to be a public health concern; the latest data from the ADDM Network underscore the ongoing need for timely and accessible developmental assessments, educational supports, and services for persons with ASD and their families,” they concluded.

rfranki@mdedge.com

SOURCE: Maenner MJ et al. MMWR Surveill Summ. 2020 Mar 27;69(SS-4):1-12.

For the first time since detailed measurement began in 2000, there was no significant difference in autism prevalence between black and white 8-year-olds in 2016, according to data from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

MDedge News

The latest analysis from the CDC’s Autism and Developmental Disabilities Monitoring (ADDM) Network puts the prevalence of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) at 18.3 per 1,000 children aged 8 years among black children and 18.5 per 1,000 in white children, Matthew J. Maenner, PhD, and associates said in MMWR Surveillance Summaries. Overall prevalence was 18.5 per 1,000 children, or 1 in 54 children, aged 8 years.

“This diminishing disparity in ASD prevalence might signify progress toward earlier and more equitable identification of ASD,” they wrote, while also noting that “black children with ASD were more likely than white children to have an intellectual disability” and were less likely to undergo evaluation by age 36 months.

Among non-Hispanic white children, 45.3% had received a comprehensive evaluation for ASD before the age of 36 months, compared with 39.8% of non-Hispanic black children and 42.9% of Hispanic children, said Dr. Maenner of the CDC’s National Center on Birth Defects and Developmental Disabilities.

The overall rate of early evaluation was 44% for the cohort of 3,981 children who were born in 2008 and included in the 2016 analysis of the 11 ADDM Network sites, they reported.

There was, however, considerable variation in the timing of that initial evaluation for ASD among the sites, which largely consisted of one to seven counties in most states, except for Arkansas (all 75 counties), Tennessee (11 counties), and Wisconsin (10 counties), Dr. Maenner and associates noted.

The two ADDM Network sites at the extremes of that variation were North Carolina and Arkansas. In North Carolina, almost twice as many children (62.3%) had an evaluation by 36 months than in Arkansas (32.6%), although Arkansas closed the gap a bit by evaluating 21.8% of children aged 37-48 months, compared with 11.3% in North Carolina, the investigators said.

“ASD continues to be a public health concern; the latest data from the ADDM Network underscore the ongoing need for timely and accessible developmental assessments, educational supports, and services for persons with ASD and their families,” they concluded.

rfranki@mdedge.com

SOURCE: Maenner MJ et al. MMWR Surveill Summ. 2020 Mar 27;69(SS-4):1-12.

To the Editor:

Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects approximately 1% to 4% of the worldwide population and is 3 times more common in females than in males.¹ The condition is characterized by painful inflamed nodules in apocrine gland–bearing regions that can progress to abscesses, sinus tracts, and/or scarring. Hidradenitis suppurativa is associated with intense pain, work disability, and poor quality of life.¹

Recent evidence has suggested that HS is an autoimmune disease resulting from dysregulation of the γ-secretase/Notch pathway, leading to stimulation of the toll-like receptor–mediated innate immunity that contributes to occlusion and inflammation of the hair follicle. Additionally, elevated levels of proinflammatory cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor α and IL-17 are seen in HS lesions.² The autoimmune nature of HS may account for its increased association with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease and potentially with other unexplored conditions such as fibromyalgia.³

Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain condition that primarily affects females and is commonly associated with other autoimmune conditions.⁴ The primary objective of this retrospective study was to determine the prevalence of fibromyalgia in HS patients and assess if there is an association between HS disease severity and development of fibromyalgia.

We conducted a retrospective chart review of patients at Wake Forest Baptist Medical Center (Winston-Salem, North Carolina) who were 18 years and older and had a diagnosis of both HS and fibromyalgia from January 2008 to November 2018. The primary end point was the prevalence of fibromyalgia in the HS population. The secondary end point was the association of HS disease severity with the development of fibromyalgia. Hidradenitis disease severity was defined according to the number of body areas affected by HS: mild disease involved 1 body area, moderate disease involved 2 body areas, and severe disease involved 3 or more body areas. Patient age, sex, and race also were recorded.

A total of 1356 patients were seen during this time period for HS. The prevalence of fibromyalgia in the HS population was 3.2% (n=44). Ninety-five percent (42/44) of patients with HS and fibromyalgia were women; 22 (50%) patients had severe disease, 12 (27%) had moderate disease, 7 (16%) had mild disease, and 3 (7%) had an unknown number of affected body areas. Fifty-seven percent (25/44) of patients were diagnosed with HS prior to the diagnosis of fibromyalgia (Table).

To the Editor:

Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects approximately 1% to 4% of the worldwide population and is 3 times more common in females than in males.¹ The condition is characterized by painful inflamed nodules in apocrine gland–bearing regions that can progress to abscesses, sinus tracts, and/or scarring. Hidradenitis suppurativa is associated with intense pain, work disability, and poor quality of life.¹

Recent evidence has suggested that HS is an autoimmune disease resulting from dysregulation of the γ-secretase/Notch pathway, leading to stimulation of the toll-like receptor–mediated innate immunity that contributes to occlusion and inflammation of the hair follicle. Additionally, elevated levels of proinflammatory cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor α and IL-17 are seen in HS lesions.² The autoimmune nature of HS may account for its increased association with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease and potentially with other unexplored conditions such as fibromyalgia.³

Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain condition that primarily affects females and is commonly associated with other autoimmune conditions.⁴ The primary objective of this retrospective study was to determine the prevalence of fibromyalgia in HS patients and assess if there is an association between HS disease severity and development of fibromyalgia.

We conducted a retrospective chart review of patients at Wake Forest Baptist Medical Center (Winston-Salem, North Carolina) who were 18 years and older and had a diagnosis of both HS and fibromyalgia from January 2008 to November 2018. The primary end point was the prevalence of fibromyalgia in the HS population. The secondary end point was the association of HS disease severity with the development of fibromyalgia. Hidradenitis disease severity was defined according to the number of body areas affected by HS: mild disease involved 1 body area, moderate disease involved 2 body areas, and severe disease involved 3 or more body areas. Patient age, sex, and race also were recorded.

A total of 1356 patients were seen during this time period for HS. The prevalence of fibromyalgia in the HS population was 3.2% (n=44). Ninety-five percent (42/44) of patients with HS and fibromyalgia were women; 22 (50%) patients had severe disease, 12 (27%) had moderate disease, 7 (16%) had mild disease, and 3 (7%) had an unknown number of affected body areas. Fifty-seven percent (25/44) of patients were diagnosed with HS prior to the diagnosis of fibromyalgia (Table).

To the Editor:

Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects approximately 1% to 4% of the worldwide population and is 3 times more common in females than in males.¹ The condition is characterized by painful inflamed nodules in apocrine gland–bearing regions that can progress to abscesses, sinus tracts, and/or scarring. Hidradenitis suppurativa is associated with intense pain, work disability, and poor quality of life.¹

Recent evidence has suggested that HS is an autoimmune disease resulting from dysregulation of the γ-secretase/Notch pathway, leading to stimulation of the toll-like receptor–mediated innate immunity that contributes to occlusion and inflammation of the hair follicle. Additionally, elevated levels of proinflammatory cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor α and IL-17 are seen in HS lesions.² The autoimmune nature of HS may account for its increased association with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease and potentially with other unexplored conditions such as fibromyalgia.³

Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain condition that primarily affects females and is commonly associated with other autoimmune conditions.⁴ The primary objective of this retrospective study was to determine the prevalence of fibromyalgia in HS patients and assess if there is an association between HS disease severity and development of fibromyalgia.

We conducted a retrospective chart review of patients at Wake Forest Baptist Medical Center (Winston-Salem, North Carolina) who were 18 years and older and had a diagnosis of both HS and fibromyalgia from January 2008 to November 2018. The primary end point was the prevalence of fibromyalgia in the HS population. The secondary end point was the association of HS disease severity with the development of fibromyalgia. Hidradenitis disease severity was defined according to the number of body areas affected by HS: mild disease involved 1 body area, moderate disease involved 2 body areas, and severe disease involved 3 or more body areas. Patient age, sex, and race also were recorded.

A total of 1356 patients were seen during this time period for HS. The prevalence of fibromyalgia in the HS population was 3.2% (n=44). Ninety-five percent (42/44) of patients with HS and fibromyalgia were women; 22 (50%) patients had severe disease, 12 (27%) had moderate disease, 7 (16%) had mild disease, and 3 (7%) had an unknown number of affected body areas. Fifty-seven percent (25/44) of patients were diagnosed with HS prior to the diagnosis of fibromyalgia (Table).

Strict adherence to pathology guidelines for interpreting immumohistochemical (IHC) staining in endometrial cancer samples may miss the opportunity to identify patients with Lynch syndrome, investigators cautioned.

Current College of American Pathologists recommendations say that any partial, indeterminate, or “heterogeneous” IHC staining for DNA mismatch repair proteins (MMRP) should be considered as intact expression staining.

However, a retrospective review of patients with endometrial cancer showed that 3 of 13 patients with Lynch syndrome had a small proportion of staining and would have been considered at low risk for Lynch syndrome if the reporting rules were followed to the letter, according to Courtney J. Riedinger, MD, and colleagues from the University of Tennessee Medical Center in Knoxville.

“IHC staining for mismatch repair proteins is a way to screen for who should get genetic testing [for Lynch syndrome],” Dr. Riedinger said in an interview. “The pathology guidelines say that any expression is intact staining, but we found some tumor specimens that have about only 20% staining, and we found that 3 of 27 patients with a range of 20%-60% expression had Lynch syndrome.”

The findings suggest that genetic testing for Lynch syndrome should be considered in patients with heterogeneous staining for MMRP, Dr. Riedinger and colleagues wrote in an abstract that had been slated for presentation at the Society of Gynecologic Oncology’s Annual Meeting on Women’s Cancer. The meeting was canceled due to the COVID-19 pandemic.A recent systematic review estimated the prevalence of Lynch syndrome in women with endometrial cancer to be 3%. The authors of the review recommended universal screening for Lynch syndrome in women with endometrial cancer (Genet Med. 2019 Oct;21[10]:2167-2180).

As Dr. Riedinger and colleagues noted, screening for Lynch syndrome can be performed clinically with microsatellite instability testing or IHC staining for MMRP.

To determine the frequency of Lynch syndrome in women with endometrial cancer whose samples exhibited heterogeneous staining for MMRP, the investigators conducted a retrospective review.

They identified 455 women who underwent hysterectomy for endometrial cancer during 2012-2017. Of this group, samples from 315 patients had no MMRP loss, 92 had complete loss, and 48 had heterogeneous MMRP staining. Of the latter group, 21 samples were reported as intact, and 27 were reported as heterogeneous.

A total of 13 patients were identified as having Lynch syndrome, including 3 of the 27 patients with reported heterogeneous staining and 10 with reported complete loss of MMRP.

The investigators found the frequency of Lynch syndrome among patients with reported heterogeneous staining was not significantly different than that for patients with complete MMRP loss. In addition, there were no significant differences between samples with heterogeneous or complete loss of staining by type of MMRP.

“Our data suggest genetic testing for Lynch syndrome in patients with heterogeneous IHC staining for MMRP should be considered. Current reporting guidelines regarding MMRP expression in endometrial cancer patients need to be reevaluated,” Dr. Riedinger and colleagues concluded.

Dr. Riedinger reported no conflicts of interest. The study was internally funded.

SOURCE: Riedinger CJ et al. SGO 2020, Abstract 104.

Strict adherence to pathology guidelines for interpreting immumohistochemical (IHC) staining in endometrial cancer samples may miss the opportunity to identify patients with Lynch syndrome, investigators cautioned.

Current College of American Pathologists recommendations say that any partial, indeterminate, or “heterogeneous” IHC staining for DNA mismatch repair proteins (MMRP) should be considered as intact expression staining.

However, a retrospective review of patients with endometrial cancer showed that 3 of 13 patients with Lynch syndrome had a small proportion of staining and would have been considered at low risk for Lynch syndrome if the reporting rules were followed to the letter, according to Courtney J. Riedinger, MD, and colleagues from the University of Tennessee Medical Center in Knoxville.

“IHC staining for mismatch repair proteins is a way to screen for who should get genetic testing [for Lynch syndrome],” Dr. Riedinger said in an interview. “The pathology guidelines say that any expression is intact staining, but we found some tumor specimens that have about only 20% staining, and we found that 3 of 27 patients with a range of 20%-60% expression had Lynch syndrome.”

The findings suggest that genetic testing for Lynch syndrome should be considered in patients with heterogeneous staining for MMRP, Dr. Riedinger and colleagues wrote in an abstract that had been slated for presentation at the Society of Gynecologic Oncology’s Annual Meeting on Women’s Cancer. The meeting was canceled due to the COVID-19 pandemic.A recent systematic review estimated the prevalence of Lynch syndrome in women with endometrial cancer to be 3%. The authors of the review recommended universal screening for Lynch syndrome in women with endometrial cancer (Genet Med. 2019 Oct;21[10]:2167-2180).

As Dr. Riedinger and colleagues noted, screening for Lynch syndrome can be performed clinically with microsatellite instability testing or IHC staining for MMRP.

To determine the frequency of Lynch syndrome in women with endometrial cancer whose samples exhibited heterogeneous staining for MMRP, the investigators conducted a retrospective review.

They identified 455 women who underwent hysterectomy for endometrial cancer during 2012-2017. Of this group, samples from 315 patients had no MMRP loss, 92 had complete loss, and 48 had heterogeneous MMRP staining. Of the latter group, 21 samples were reported as intact, and 27 were reported as heterogeneous.

A total of 13 patients were identified as having Lynch syndrome, including 3 of the 27 patients with reported heterogeneous staining and 10 with reported complete loss of MMRP.

The investigators found the frequency of Lynch syndrome among patients with reported heterogeneous staining was not significantly different than that for patients with complete MMRP loss. In addition, there were no significant differences between samples with heterogeneous or complete loss of staining by type of MMRP.

“Our data suggest genetic testing for Lynch syndrome in patients with heterogeneous IHC staining for MMRP should be considered. Current reporting guidelines regarding MMRP expression in endometrial cancer patients need to be reevaluated,” Dr. Riedinger and colleagues concluded.

Dr. Riedinger reported no conflicts of interest. The study was internally funded.

SOURCE: Riedinger CJ et al. SGO 2020, Abstract 104.

Strict adherence to pathology guidelines for interpreting immumohistochemical (IHC) staining in endometrial cancer samples may miss the opportunity to identify patients with Lynch syndrome, investigators cautioned.

Current College of American Pathologists recommendations say that any partial, indeterminate, or “heterogeneous” IHC staining for DNA mismatch repair proteins (MMRP) should be considered as intact expression staining.

However, a retrospective review of patients with endometrial cancer showed that 3 of 13 patients with Lynch syndrome had a small proportion of staining and would have been considered at low risk for Lynch syndrome if the reporting rules were followed to the letter, according to Courtney J. Riedinger, MD, and colleagues from the University of Tennessee Medical Center in Knoxville.

“IHC staining for mismatch repair proteins is a way to screen for who should get genetic testing [for Lynch syndrome],” Dr. Riedinger said in an interview. “The pathology guidelines say that any expression is intact staining, but we found some tumor specimens that have about only 20% staining, and we found that 3 of 27 patients with a range of 20%-60% expression had Lynch syndrome.”

The findings suggest that genetic testing for Lynch syndrome should be considered in patients with heterogeneous staining for MMRP, Dr. Riedinger and colleagues wrote in an abstract that had been slated for presentation at the Society of Gynecologic Oncology’s Annual Meeting on Women’s Cancer. The meeting was canceled due to the COVID-19 pandemic.A recent systematic review estimated the prevalence of Lynch syndrome in women with endometrial cancer to be 3%. The authors of the review recommended universal screening for Lynch syndrome in women with endometrial cancer (Genet Med. 2019 Oct;21[10]:2167-2180).

As Dr. Riedinger and colleagues noted, screening for Lynch syndrome can be performed clinically with microsatellite instability testing or IHC staining for MMRP.

To determine the frequency of Lynch syndrome in women with endometrial cancer whose samples exhibited heterogeneous staining for MMRP, the investigators conducted a retrospective review.

They identified 455 women who underwent hysterectomy for endometrial cancer during 2012-2017. Of this group, samples from 315 patients had no MMRP loss, 92 had complete loss, and 48 had heterogeneous MMRP staining. Of the latter group, 21 samples were reported as intact, and 27 were reported as heterogeneous.

A total of 13 patients were identified as having Lynch syndrome, including 3 of the 27 patients with reported heterogeneous staining and 10 with reported complete loss of MMRP.

The investigators found the frequency of Lynch syndrome among patients with reported heterogeneous staining was not significantly different than that for patients with complete MMRP loss. In addition, there were no significant differences between samples with heterogeneous or complete loss of staining by type of MMRP.

“Our data suggest genetic testing for Lynch syndrome in patients with heterogeneous IHC staining for MMRP should be considered. Current reporting guidelines regarding MMRP expression in endometrial cancer patients need to be reevaluated,” Dr. Riedinger and colleagues concluded.

Dr. Riedinger reported no conflicts of interest. The study was internally funded.

SOURCE: Riedinger CJ et al. SGO 2020, Abstract 104.

In New York state, just over 86% of reported COVID-19 deaths involved at least one comorbidity, according to the state’s department of health.

As of midnight on April 6, there had been 5,489 fatalities caused by COVID-19 in the state, of which 86.2% (4,732) had at least one underlying condition, the New York State Department of Health reported April 7 on its COVID-19 tracker.

The leading comorbidity, seen in 55.4% of all deaths, was hypertension. In comparison, a recent estimate from the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services put the prevalence of high blood pressure at about 45% in the overall adult population.

In New York, the rest of the 10 most common comorbidities in COVID-19 fatalities were diabetes (37.3%), hyperlipidemia (18.5%), coronary artery disease (12.4%), renal disease (11.0%), dementia (9.1%), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (8.3%), cancer (8.1%), atrial fibrillation (7.1%), and heart failure (7.1%), the NYSDOH said.

Other data on the tracker site show that 63% of all deaths involved a patient who was aged 70 years or older and that 61% of COVID-19 patients who have died in New York were male and 38.8% were female (sex unknown for 0.2%). Among all individuals who have tested positive, 54.8% were male and 44.6% were female (sex unknown for 0.6%).

As of the end of day on April 6, a total of 340,058 persons had been tested in the state and 40.8% (138,863) were positive for the SARS-CoV-2 virus. By county, the highest positive rates are in New York City: Queens at 57.4%, Brooklyn at 52.4%, and the Bronx at 52.3%, according to the NYSDOH.

rfranki@mdedge.com

In New York state, just over 86% of reported COVID-19 deaths involved at least one comorbidity, according to the state’s department of health.

As of midnight on April 6, there had been 5,489 fatalities caused by COVID-19 in the state, of which 86.2% (4,732) had at least one underlying condition, the New York State Department of Health reported April 7 on its COVID-19 tracker.

The leading comorbidity, seen in 55.4% of all deaths, was hypertension. In comparison, a recent estimate from the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services put the prevalence of high blood pressure at about 45% in the overall adult population.

In New York, the rest of the 10 most common comorbidities in COVID-19 fatalities were diabetes (37.3%), hyperlipidemia (18.5%), coronary artery disease (12.4%), renal disease (11.0%), dementia (9.1%), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (8.3%), cancer (8.1%), atrial fibrillation (7.1%), and heart failure (7.1%), the NYSDOH said.

Other data on the tracker site show that 63% of all deaths involved a patient who was aged 70 years or older and that 61% of COVID-19 patients who have died in New York were male and 38.8% were female (sex unknown for 0.2%). Among all individuals who have tested positive, 54.8% were male and 44.6% were female (sex unknown for 0.6%).

As of the end of day on April 6, a total of 340,058 persons had been tested in the state and 40.8% (138,863) were positive for the SARS-CoV-2 virus. By county, the highest positive rates are in New York City: Queens at 57.4%, Brooklyn at 52.4%, and the Bronx at 52.3%, according to the NYSDOH.

rfranki@mdedge.com

In New York state, just over 86% of reported COVID-19 deaths involved at least one comorbidity, according to the state’s department of health.

As of midnight on April 6, there had been 5,489 fatalities caused by COVID-19 in the state, of which 86.2% (4,732) had at least one underlying condition, the New York State Department of Health reported April 7 on its COVID-19 tracker.

The leading comorbidity, seen in 55.4% of all deaths, was hypertension. In comparison, a recent estimate from the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services put the prevalence of high blood pressure at about 45% in the overall adult population.

In New York, the rest of the 10 most common comorbidities in COVID-19 fatalities were diabetes (37.3%), hyperlipidemia (18.5%), coronary artery disease (12.4%), renal disease (11.0%), dementia (9.1%), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (8.3%), cancer (8.1%), atrial fibrillation (7.1%), and heart failure (7.1%), the NYSDOH said.

Other data on the tracker site show that 63% of all deaths involved a patient who was aged 70 years or older and that 61% of COVID-19 patients who have died in New York were male and 38.8% were female (sex unknown for 0.2%). Among all individuals who have tested positive, 54.8% were male and 44.6% were female (sex unknown for 0.6%).

As of the end of day on April 6, a total of 340,058 persons had been tested in the state and 40.8% (138,863) were positive for the SARS-CoV-2 virus. By county, the highest positive rates are in New York City: Queens at 57.4%, Brooklyn at 52.4%, and the Bronx at 52.3%, according to the NYSDOH.

rfranki@mdedge.com

To the Editor:

A 59-year-old man presented with a lesion on the right frontal scalp of 4 months’ duration and a lesion on the left frontal scalp of 1 month’s duration. Both lesions were tender, bleeding, nonhealing, and growing in size. The patient reported no improvement with the use of triple antibiotic ointment. He denied any associated symptoms or trauma to the affected areas. He had a history of stage IV esophageal adenocarcinoma that initially had been surgically removed 6 years prior but metastasized to the lungs and bone. The patient subsequently underwent treatment with FOLFOX (folinic acid, fluorouracil, oxaliplatin), trastuzumab, and radiation therapy.

Physical examination revealed a hyperkeratotic pink nodule with a central erosion and crust on the right frontal scalp measuring 1.5×2 cm in diameter (Figure 1A). The left frontal scalp lesion was a smooth pearly papule measuring 5×5 mm in diameter (Figure 1B). The differential diagnosis included basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and cutaneous metastases from esophageal adenocarcinoma. Shave biopsies were taken of both scalp lesions.

Our case highlights multiple cutaneous metastases of the scalp from a primary esophageal adenocarcinoma. Although cutaneous scalp metastasis of esophageal adenocarcinoma is rare, it is essential to provide a full-body skin examination, including the scalp, in patients with a history of esophageal cancer and to biopsy any suspicious nodules or plaques. The 1-year survival rate after diagnosis of esophageal carcinoma is less than 50%, and the 5-year survival rate is less than 10%.¹³ Identifying cutaneous metastasis of an esophageal adenocarcinoma can either change the staging of the cancer (if it was the first distant metastasis noted) or indicate an insufficient response to treatment in a patient with known metastatic disease, prompting a potential change in treatment.⁷

This case illustrates a rare site of metastasis of a fairly common cancer and highlights the histopathology and accompanying immunohistochemical stains that can be useful in diagnosis as well as the spectrum of its clinical presentation.

To the Editor:

A 59-year-old man presented with a lesion on the right frontal scalp of 4 months’ duration and a lesion on the left frontal scalp of 1 month’s duration. Both lesions were tender, bleeding, nonhealing, and growing in size. The patient reported no improvement with the use of triple antibiotic ointment. He denied any associated symptoms or trauma to the affected areas. He had a history of stage IV esophageal adenocarcinoma that initially had been surgically removed 6 years prior but metastasized to the lungs and bone. The patient subsequently underwent treatment with FOLFOX (folinic acid, fluorouracil, oxaliplatin), trastuzumab, and radiation therapy.

Physical examination revealed a hyperkeratotic pink nodule with a central erosion and crust on the right frontal scalp measuring 1.5×2 cm in diameter (Figure 1A). The left frontal scalp lesion was a smooth pearly papule measuring 5×5 mm in diameter (Figure 1B). The differential diagnosis included basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and cutaneous metastases from esophageal adenocarcinoma. Shave biopsies were taken of both scalp lesions.

Our case highlights multiple cutaneous metastases of the scalp from a primary esophageal adenocarcinoma. Although cutaneous scalp metastasis of esophageal adenocarcinoma is rare, it is essential to provide a full-body skin examination, including the scalp, in patients with a history of esophageal cancer and to biopsy any suspicious nodules or plaques. The 1-year survival rate after diagnosis of esophageal carcinoma is less than 50%, and the 5-year survival rate is less than 10%.¹³ Identifying cutaneous metastasis of an esophageal adenocarcinoma can either change the staging of the cancer (if it was the first distant metastasis noted) or indicate an insufficient response to treatment in a patient with known metastatic disease, prompting a potential change in treatment.⁷

This case illustrates a rare site of metastasis of a fairly common cancer and highlights the histopathology and accompanying immunohistochemical stains that can be useful in diagnosis as well as the spectrum of its clinical presentation.

To the Editor:

A 59-year-old man presented with a lesion on the right frontal scalp of 4 months’ duration and a lesion on the left frontal scalp of 1 month’s duration. Both lesions were tender, bleeding, nonhealing, and growing in size. The patient reported no improvement with the use of triple antibiotic ointment. He denied any associated symptoms or trauma to the affected areas. He had a history of stage IV esophageal adenocarcinoma that initially had been surgically removed 6 years prior but metastasized to the lungs and bone. The patient subsequently underwent treatment with FOLFOX (folinic acid, fluorouracil, oxaliplatin), trastuzumab, and radiation therapy.

Physical examination revealed a hyperkeratotic pink nodule with a central erosion and crust on the right frontal scalp measuring 1.5×2 cm in diameter (Figure 1A). The left frontal scalp lesion was a smooth pearly papule measuring 5×5 mm in diameter (Figure 1B). The differential diagnosis included basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and cutaneous metastases from esophageal adenocarcinoma. Shave biopsies were taken of both scalp lesions.

Our case highlights multiple cutaneous metastases of the scalp from a primary esophageal adenocarcinoma. Although cutaneous scalp metastasis of esophageal adenocarcinoma is rare, it is essential to provide a full-body skin examination, including the scalp, in patients with a history of esophageal cancer and to biopsy any suspicious nodules or plaques. The 1-year survival rate after diagnosis of esophageal carcinoma is less than 50%, and the 5-year survival rate is less than 10%.¹³ Identifying cutaneous metastasis of an esophageal adenocarcinoma can either change the staging of the cancer (if it was the first distant metastasis noted) or indicate an insufficient response to treatment in a patient with known metastatic disease, prompting a potential change in treatment.⁷

This case illustrates a rare site of metastasis of a fairly common cancer and highlights the histopathology and accompanying immunohistochemical stains that can be useful in diagnosis as well as the spectrum of its clinical presentation.

STOWE, VT. – Menstrual migraine is more disabling than migraine that has no association with menstruation, said Susan Hutchinson, MD, director of the Orange County Migraine and Headache Center in Irvine, Calif. Compared with headaches associated with nonmenstrual migraine, headaches resulting from menstrual migraine last longer and are more difficult to treat. They tend to be associated with morning awakening and with nausea and vomiting. But in younger women with regular menses, menstrual migraine is predictable. The disorder offers “an incredible chance to be preemptive and think about short-term preventive strategies,” Dr. Hutchinson said at the annual meeting of the Headache Cooperative of New England.

What is menstrual migraine?

Menstrual migraine occurs during the perimenstrual window, which begins at 2 days before onset of bleeding and ends at 3 days of menses. Migraine that occurs during this window at least two-thirds of the time satisfies the criteria for menstrual migraine. A prospective headache diary is recommended, but not required, for making the diagnosis, said Dr. Hutchinson.

Most women with migraine have perimenstrual exacerbation of their headaches, as well as headaches at other times of the month. This phenotype is called menstrually related migraine. Pure menstrual migraine is migraine associated exclusively with menses. The International Classification of Headache Disorders-3 recognizes that menstrual migraine can be with or without aura. A headache diary can help distinguish between menstrual migraine and menstrually related migraine.

For pure menstrual migraine, it is appropriate to treat during the perimenstrual window. Preventive treatment may not be necessary throughout the month, said Dr. Hutchinson. Furthermore, hormonal treatment is the type of therapy most likely to be effective, she added. Menstrually related migraine requires a broader approach.
 

Gathering information during the visit

A 1972 study by Somerville and colleagues indicated that a decrease in estrogen is a powerful trigger of migraine. The investigators administered estrogen (i.e., intramuscular estradiol) or progesterone during the late luteal phase to women with menstrual migraine. Among women who received estrogen, migraine onset was postponed until the estrogen level decreased. The administration of progesterone postponed bleeding, but did not affect migraine. Progesterone treatment prevents migraine effectively on occasion, but estrogen treatment is much more likely to be a successful strategy, said Dr. Hutchinson.

Neurologists should ask certain questions of women with migraine, whether the patients are new or not, to gather information needed to make treatment decisions. For example, it is advisable to ask a woman whether she often has a headache with her period. “You may not want to use the word ‘migraine,’ because many women have been taught that headache is part of PMS,” said Dr. Hutchinson. Asking a woman how pregnancy, delivery, and breastfeeding affected her headaches can add further detail to her history and provide insight about the effects of hormonal changes. Asking what type of birth control the woman is taking can influence the choice of treatment, since some therapies are not appropriate during pregnancy.
 

Available treatments

NSAIDs are among the treatments that neurologists should consider for the short-term prevention of menstrually related migraine, said Dr. Hutchinson. A study of 35 patients by Sances et al. compared placebo with 550 mg of naproxen sodium given twice daily. Treatment began at 7 days before bleeding onset and continued until the 6th day of menses. Patients underwent treatment for three menstrual cycles. Naproxen sodium significantly reduced headache intensity, headache duration, and the number of headache days, compared with baseline. Treatment was superior to placebo at 3 months. Approximately 33% of patients in the active group were headache free, but no controls were.

Magnesium is another potentially effective option. Facchinetti et al. compared placebo with 360 mg/day of magnesium in a study of 20 patients. Treatment, which was given for two cycles, began at 15 days before menses and ended at the start of menses. Compared with placebo, magnesium reduced the number of headache days and the total pain index. Magnesium is inexpensive, but it causes diarrhea in some patients. “Some women choose to take magnesium all month long, other women start at around ovulation,” said Dr. Hutchinson.

Hormonal treatments are another possible option for the short-term prevention of menstrually related migraine. For women who do not plan to become pregnant, oral contraceptive pills can keep estrogen levels high enough to prevent menstrually related migraine. Gynecologists may suggest that a woman take the pill continuously, skipping the placebo, for an entire year, but Dr. Hutchinson recommends that a woman stop taking the pill for 4 days approximately every 3 months. This discontinuation allows for withdrawal bleeding, but is not likely to cause a prolonged enough decrease in estrogen to provoke migraine, she said. The continuous contraceptive ring, which is inserted vaginally, is an alternative to the pill.

For women who do not want or need contraception, an estrogen patch or gel may be appropriate. Two studies in the 1980s found that a gel containing 1.5 mg of estradiol per 2.5 g reduced migraine frequency, duration, and severity. These studies did not gather long-term safety data, however. A 2006 study by MacGregor et al. found that percutaneous estradiol was associated with a 22% reduction in the number of migraine days, as well as with decreases in headache severity and associated nausea. But the risk of migraine during the 5 days following treatment cessation was increased by 40%. This finding suggests that the treatment period should be extended, said Dr. Hutchinson.

In addition to the timing, the dose of treatment affects the outcome. Smite et al. found no benefit of a 50-mcg dose of estradiol, compared with placebo. Pradalier and colleagues found that a 100-mcg dose was associated with decreased use of rescue medication, compared with a 25-mcg dose. These studies did not gather long-term safety data.
 

Oral contraceptives and the risk of stroke

Combined oral contraceptives, however, are associated with increased risk of stroke in women with migraine with aura. The dose of estrogen in the contraceptive affects the level of risk, said Dr. Hutchinson. A systematic review by Sheikh et al. found that high-dose ethinyl estradiol (i.e., greater than 50 mcg) was associated with a higher risk of ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke than low-dose ethinyl estradiol (i.e., less than 50 mcg) was. A 20-mcg dose was associated with an odds ratio of stroke of 1.7. Furthermore, among women using combined hormonal contraception, the risk of stroke was higher in women with aura than in women without aura.

“I like to look at the big picture,” said Dr. Hutchinson. “There’s a big difference between a woman who has one or two auras a year that last for 10 minutes and a woman who has complicated aura. I’m going to approach [the latter] woman differently.”

No consensus guidelines for prescribing combined oral contraceptives to women with migraine and aura have been developed. The International Headache Society says that physicians may prescribe low-dose estrogen to women with simple visual aura. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends progestin-only intrauterine or barrier contraception for this population. The World Health Organization holds that estrogen-containing contraception is contraindicated in all women who have migraine with aura.

“If you have women who have migraine without aura, low–estrogen dose combined hormonal contraceptives can be quite appropriate,” said Dr. Hutchinson. “I would tend to go with a 10- or 20-mcg low dose. It could be an option for women with migraine with aura, but only if the benefits outweigh the risks.” In a study by Calhoun et al., the vaginal ring was associated with reduced aura frequency in women with migraine and aura.
 

Choosing preventive and rescue medications

Although no triptan has FDA approval for the short-term prevention of menstrual migraine, studies have suggested that they are effective. In a study by Sances and colleagues, a twice-daily 1-mg dose of naratriptan taken 6 days perimenstrually reduced the frequency of menstrual-related migraine. At least 50% of treated patients in the study had no menstrual-related migraine. Silberstein and colleagues found that 59% of women who took 2.5 mg of frovatriptan twice daily had no menstrual-related migraine during the 6-day perimenstrual period, compared with 33% of women who received placebo.

Patients with menstrual migraine sometimes need rescue medication. Sumatriptan, either as an injection or an inhaled therapy, is one option. Another injectable option is a 60-mg intramuscular dose of ketorolac. Finally, occipital or sphenopalatine nerve block may be effective as well.

Dr. Hutchinson reported consulting for or serving on the advisory board of Alder, Allergan, Amgen, Biohaven, electroCore, Lilly, Novartis, Supernus, Teva, Theranica, and Upsher-Smith. She has served on speakers bureaus for Allergan, Amgen, electroCore, Lilly, Novartis, Supernus, and Teva.

egreb@mdedge.com

STOWE, VT. – Menstrual migraine is more disabling than migraine that has no association with menstruation, said Susan Hutchinson, MD, director of the Orange County Migraine and Headache Center in Irvine, Calif. Compared with headaches associated with nonmenstrual migraine, headaches resulting from menstrual migraine last longer and are more difficult to treat. They tend to be associated with morning awakening and with nausea and vomiting. But in younger women with regular menses, menstrual migraine is predictable. The disorder offers “an incredible chance to be preemptive and think about short-term preventive strategies,” Dr. Hutchinson said at the annual meeting of the Headache Cooperative of New England.

What is menstrual migraine?

Menstrual migraine occurs during the perimenstrual window, which begins at 2 days before onset of bleeding and ends at 3 days of menses. Migraine that occurs during this window at least two-thirds of the time satisfies the criteria for menstrual migraine. A prospective headache diary is recommended, but not required, for making the diagnosis, said Dr. Hutchinson.

Most women with migraine have perimenstrual exacerbation of their headaches, as well as headaches at other times of the month. This phenotype is called menstrually related migraine. Pure menstrual migraine is migraine associated exclusively with menses. The International Classification of Headache Disorders-3 recognizes that menstrual migraine can be with or without aura. A headache diary can help distinguish between menstrual migraine and menstrually related migraine.

For pure menstrual migraine, it is appropriate to treat during the perimenstrual window. Preventive treatment may not be necessary throughout the month, said Dr. Hutchinson. Furthermore, hormonal treatment is the type of therapy most likely to be effective, she added. Menstrually related migraine requires a broader approach.
 

Gathering information during the visit

A 1972 study by Somerville and colleagues indicated that a decrease in estrogen is a powerful trigger of migraine. The investigators administered estrogen (i.e., intramuscular estradiol) or progesterone during the late luteal phase to women with menstrual migraine. Among women who received estrogen, migraine onset was postponed until the estrogen level decreased. The administration of progesterone postponed bleeding, but did not affect migraine. Progesterone treatment prevents migraine effectively on occasion, but estrogen treatment is much more likely to be a successful strategy, said Dr. Hutchinson.

Neurologists should ask certain questions of women with migraine, whether the patients are new or not, to gather information needed to make treatment decisions. For example, it is advisable to ask a woman whether she often has a headache with her period. “You may not want to use the word ‘migraine,’ because many women have been taught that headache is part of PMS,” said Dr. Hutchinson. Asking a woman how pregnancy, delivery, and breastfeeding affected her headaches can add further detail to her history and provide insight about the effects of hormonal changes. Asking what type of birth control the woman is taking can influence the choice of treatment, since some therapies are not appropriate during pregnancy.
 

Available treatments

NSAIDs are among the treatments that neurologists should consider for the short-term prevention of menstrually related migraine, said Dr. Hutchinson. A study of 35 patients by Sances et al. compared placebo with 550 mg of naproxen sodium given twice daily. Treatment began at 7 days before bleeding onset and continued until the 6th day of menses. Patients underwent treatment for three menstrual cycles. Naproxen sodium significantly reduced headache intensity, headache duration, and the number of headache days, compared with baseline. Treatment was superior to placebo at 3 months. Approximately 33% of patients in the active group were headache free, but no controls were.

Magnesium is another potentially effective option. Facchinetti et al. compared placebo with 360 mg/day of magnesium in a study of 20 patients. Treatment, which was given for two cycles, began at 15 days before menses and ended at the start of menses. Compared with placebo, magnesium reduced the number of headache days and the total pain index. Magnesium is inexpensive, but it causes diarrhea in some patients. “Some women choose to take magnesium all month long, other women start at around ovulation,” said Dr. Hutchinson.

Hormonal treatments are another possible option for the short-term prevention of menstrually related migraine. For women who do not plan to become pregnant, oral contraceptive pills can keep estrogen levels high enough to prevent menstrually related migraine. Gynecologists may suggest that a woman take the pill continuously, skipping the placebo, for an entire year, but Dr. Hutchinson recommends that a woman stop taking the pill for 4 days approximately every 3 months. This discontinuation allows for withdrawal bleeding, but is not likely to cause a prolonged enough decrease in estrogen to provoke migraine, she said. The continuous contraceptive ring, which is inserted vaginally, is an alternative to the pill.

For women who do not want or need contraception, an estrogen patch or gel may be appropriate. Two studies in the 1980s found that a gel containing 1.5 mg of estradiol per 2.5 g reduced migraine frequency, duration, and severity. These studies did not gather long-term safety data, however. A 2006 study by MacGregor et al. found that percutaneous estradiol was associated with a 22% reduction in the number of migraine days, as well as with decreases in headache severity and associated nausea. But the risk of migraine during the 5 days following treatment cessation was increased by 40%. This finding suggests that the treatment period should be extended, said Dr. Hutchinson.

In addition to the timing, the dose of treatment affects the outcome. Smite et al. found no benefit of a 50-mcg dose of estradiol, compared with placebo. Pradalier and colleagues found that a 100-mcg dose was associated with decreased use of rescue medication, compared with a 25-mcg dose. These studies did not gather long-term safety data.
 

Oral contraceptives and the risk of stroke

Combined oral contraceptives, however, are associated with increased risk of stroke in women with migraine with aura. The dose of estrogen in the contraceptive affects the level of risk, said Dr. Hutchinson. A systematic review by Sheikh et al. found that high-dose ethinyl estradiol (i.e., greater than 50 mcg) was associated with a higher risk of ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke than low-dose ethinyl estradiol (i.e., less than 50 mcg) was. A 20-mcg dose was associated with an odds ratio of stroke of 1.7. Furthermore, among women using combined hormonal contraception, the risk of stroke was higher in women with aura than in women without aura.

“I like to look at the big picture,” said Dr. Hutchinson. “There’s a big difference between a woman who has one or two auras a year that last for 10 minutes and a woman who has complicated aura. I’m going to approach [the latter] woman differently.”

No consensus guidelines for prescribing combined oral contraceptives to women with migraine and aura have been developed. The International Headache Society says that physicians may prescribe low-dose estrogen to women with simple visual aura. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends progestin-only intrauterine or barrier contraception for this population. The World Health Organization holds that estrogen-containing contraception is contraindicated in all women who have migraine with aura.

“If you have women who have migraine without aura, low–estrogen dose combined hormonal contraceptives can be quite appropriate,” said Dr. Hutchinson. “I would tend to go with a 10- or 20-mcg low dose. It could be an option for women with migraine with aura, but only if the benefits outweigh the risks.” In a study by Calhoun et al., the vaginal ring was associated with reduced aura frequency in women with migraine and aura.
 

Choosing preventive and rescue medications

Although no triptan has FDA approval for the short-term prevention of menstrual migraine, studies have suggested that they are effective. In a study by Sances and colleagues, a twice-daily 1-mg dose of naratriptan taken 6 days perimenstrually reduced the frequency of menstrual-related migraine. At least 50% of treated patients in the study had no menstrual-related migraine. Silberstein and colleagues found that 59% of women who took 2.5 mg of frovatriptan twice daily had no menstrual-related migraine during the 6-day perimenstrual period, compared with 33% of women who received placebo.

Patients with menstrual migraine sometimes need rescue medication. Sumatriptan, either as an injection or an inhaled therapy, is one option. Another injectable option is a 60-mg intramuscular dose of ketorolac. Finally, occipital or sphenopalatine nerve block may be effective as well.

Dr. Hutchinson reported consulting for or serving on the advisory board of Alder, Allergan, Amgen, Biohaven, electroCore, Lilly, Novartis, Supernus, Teva, Theranica, and Upsher-Smith. She has served on speakers bureaus for Allergan, Amgen, electroCore, Lilly, Novartis, Supernus, and Teva.

egreb@mdedge.com

STOWE, VT. – Menstrual migraine is more disabling than migraine that has no association with menstruation, said Susan Hutchinson, MD, director of the Orange County Migraine and Headache Center in Irvine, Calif. Compared with headaches associated with nonmenstrual migraine, headaches resulting from menstrual migraine last longer and are more difficult to treat. They tend to be associated with morning awakening and with nausea and vomiting. But in younger women with regular menses, menstrual migraine is predictable. The disorder offers “an incredible chance to be preemptive and think about short-term preventive strategies,” Dr. Hutchinson said at the annual meeting of the Headache Cooperative of New England.

What is menstrual migraine?

Menstrual migraine occurs during the perimenstrual window, which begins at 2 days before onset of bleeding and ends at 3 days of menses. Migraine that occurs during this window at least two-thirds of the time satisfies the criteria for menstrual migraine. A prospective headache diary is recommended, but not required, for making the diagnosis, said Dr. Hutchinson.

Most women with migraine have perimenstrual exacerbation of their headaches, as well as headaches at other times of the month. This phenotype is called menstrually related migraine. Pure menstrual migraine is migraine associated exclusively with menses. The International Classification of Headache Disorders-3 recognizes that menstrual migraine can be with or without aura. A headache diary can help distinguish between menstrual migraine and menstrually related migraine.

For pure menstrual migraine, it is appropriate to treat during the perimenstrual window. Preventive treatment may not be necessary throughout the month, said Dr. Hutchinson. Furthermore, hormonal treatment is the type of therapy most likely to be effective, she added. Menstrually related migraine requires a broader approach.
 

Gathering information during the visit

A 1972 study by Somerville and colleagues indicated that a decrease in estrogen is a powerful trigger of migraine. The investigators administered estrogen (i.e., intramuscular estradiol) or progesterone during the late luteal phase to women with menstrual migraine. Among women who received estrogen, migraine onset was postponed until the estrogen level decreased. The administration of progesterone postponed bleeding, but did not affect migraine. Progesterone treatment prevents migraine effectively on occasion, but estrogen treatment is much more likely to be a successful strategy, said Dr. Hutchinson.

Neurologists should ask certain questions of women with migraine, whether the patients are new or not, to gather information needed to make treatment decisions. For example, it is advisable to ask a woman whether she often has a headache with her period. “You may not want to use the word ‘migraine,’ because many women have been taught that headache is part of PMS,” said Dr. Hutchinson. Asking a woman how pregnancy, delivery, and breastfeeding affected her headaches can add further detail to her history and provide insight about the effects of hormonal changes. Asking what type of birth control the woman is taking can influence the choice of treatment, since some therapies are not appropriate during pregnancy.
 

Available treatments

NSAIDs are among the treatments that neurologists should consider for the short-term prevention of menstrually related migraine, said Dr. Hutchinson. A study of 35 patients by Sances et al. compared placebo with 550 mg of naproxen sodium given twice daily. Treatment began at 7 days before bleeding onset and continued until the 6th day of menses. Patients underwent treatment for three menstrual cycles. Naproxen sodium significantly reduced headache intensity, headache duration, and the number of headache days, compared with baseline. Treatment was superior to placebo at 3 months. Approximately 33% of patients in the active group were headache free, but no controls were.

Magnesium is another potentially effective option. Facchinetti et al. compared placebo with 360 mg/day of magnesium in a study of 20 patients. Treatment, which was given for two cycles, began at 15 days before menses and ended at the start of menses. Compared with placebo, magnesium reduced the number of headache days and the total pain index. Magnesium is inexpensive, but it causes diarrhea in some patients. “Some women choose to take magnesium all month long, other women start at around ovulation,” said Dr. Hutchinson.

Hormonal treatments are another possible option for the short-term prevention of menstrually related migraine. For women who do not plan to become pregnant, oral contraceptive pills can keep estrogen levels high enough to prevent menstrually related migraine. Gynecologists may suggest that a woman take the pill continuously, skipping the placebo, for an entire year, but Dr. Hutchinson recommends that a woman stop taking the pill for 4 days approximately every 3 months. This discontinuation allows for withdrawal bleeding, but is not likely to cause a prolonged enough decrease in estrogen to provoke migraine, she said. The continuous contraceptive ring, which is inserted vaginally, is an alternative to the pill.

For women who do not want or need contraception, an estrogen patch or gel may be appropriate. Two studies in the 1980s found that a gel containing 1.5 mg of estradiol per 2.5 g reduced migraine frequency, duration, and severity. These studies did not gather long-term safety data, however. A 2006 study by MacGregor et al. found that percutaneous estradiol was associated with a 22% reduction in the number of migraine days, as well as with decreases in headache severity and associated nausea. But the risk of migraine during the 5 days following treatment cessation was increased by 40%. This finding suggests that the treatment period should be extended, said Dr. Hutchinson.

In addition to the timing, the dose of treatment affects the outcome. Smite et al. found no benefit of a 50-mcg dose of estradiol, compared with placebo. Pradalier and colleagues found that a 100-mcg dose was associated with decreased use of rescue medication, compared with a 25-mcg dose. These studies did not gather long-term safety data.
 

Oral contraceptives and the risk of stroke

Combined oral contraceptives, however, are associated with increased risk of stroke in women with migraine with aura. The dose of estrogen in the contraceptive affects the level of risk, said Dr. Hutchinson. A systematic review by Sheikh et al. found that high-dose ethinyl estradiol (i.e., greater than 50 mcg) was associated with a higher risk of ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke than low-dose ethinyl estradiol (i.e., less than 50 mcg) was. A 20-mcg dose was associated with an odds ratio of stroke of 1.7. Furthermore, among women using combined hormonal contraception, the risk of stroke was higher in women with aura than in women without aura.

“I like to look at the big picture,” said Dr. Hutchinson. “There’s a big difference between a woman who has one or two auras a year that last for 10 minutes and a woman who has complicated aura. I’m going to approach [the latter] woman differently.”

No consensus guidelines for prescribing combined oral contraceptives to women with migraine and aura have been developed. The International Headache Society says that physicians may prescribe low-dose estrogen to women with simple visual aura. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends progestin-only intrauterine or barrier contraception for this population. The World Health Organization holds that estrogen-containing contraception is contraindicated in all women who have migraine with aura.

“If you have women who have migraine without aura, low–estrogen dose combined hormonal contraceptives can be quite appropriate,” said Dr. Hutchinson. “I would tend to go with a 10- or 20-mcg low dose. It could be an option for women with migraine with aura, but only if the benefits outweigh the risks.” In a study by Calhoun et al., the vaginal ring was associated with reduced aura frequency in women with migraine and aura.
 

Choosing preventive and rescue medications

Although no triptan has FDA approval for the short-term prevention of menstrual migraine, studies have suggested that they are effective. In a study by Sances and colleagues, a twice-daily 1-mg dose of naratriptan taken 6 days perimenstrually reduced the frequency of menstrual-related migraine. At least 50% of treated patients in the study had no menstrual-related migraine. Silberstein and colleagues found that 59% of women who took 2.5 mg of frovatriptan twice daily had no menstrual-related migraine during the 6-day perimenstrual period, compared with 33% of women who received placebo.

Patients with menstrual migraine sometimes need rescue medication. Sumatriptan, either as an injection or an inhaled therapy, is one option. Another injectable option is a 60-mg intramuscular dose of ketorolac. Finally, occipital or sphenopalatine nerve block may be effective as well.

Dr. Hutchinson reported consulting for or serving on the advisory board of Alder, Allergan, Amgen, Biohaven, electroCore, Lilly, Novartis, Supernus, Teva, Theranica, and Upsher-Smith. She has served on speakers bureaus for Allergan, Amgen, electroCore, Lilly, Novartis, Supernus, and Teva.

egreb@mdedge.com

Olfactory decline in patients with chronic rhinosinusitis (CRS) after endoscopic sinus surgery is linked to superior turbinate eosinophilia, according to recent research released as an abstract from the American Academy of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology annual meeting. The AAAAI canceled the meeting and provided abstracts and access to presenters for press coverage.

© Siri Stafford/Thinkstock

“Superior turbinate eosinophilia is highly associated with the olfactory decline in CRS patients 3 months after endoscopic sinus surgery,” Dawei Wu, MD, of Beijing Anzhen Hospital, Capital Medical University in Beijing, China, said in an interview.

There has been some research in the literature pointing to the link between CRS-associated olfactory dysfunction and superior turbinate eosinophilia. In a 2017 study, Lavin et al. found eosinophil markers in the superior turbinate tissue were elevated in patients with CRS with nasal polyps. One of the gene expressions of the eosinophil marker Charcot Leyden crystal protein (CLC) was inversely associated with olfactory threshold, which led the researchers to believe there was a link between olfactory decline and superior turbinate eosinophilia in these patients (Laryngoscope. 2017 Oct;127[10]:2210-2218).

Olfactory decline associated with CRS is the most common reason for loss of smell in ear, nose, and throat clinics, Dr. Wu said, but predicting this olfactory decline after endoscopic sinus surgery can be clinically challenging.

“The distinct feature of this smell disorder is the fluctuation in olfactory dysfunction which is mainly due to the recurrence of inflammation within the olfactory cleft. Notably, the level of eosinophils within the olfactory cleft significantly and positively correlated with the degree of olfactory dysfunction in patients with CRS both pre- and postoperatively,” he said.

Dr. Wu and colleagues conducted a prospective study to determine whether there was a link in CRS patients between preoperative superior turbinate eosinophilia and olfactory dysfunction after endoscopic sinus surgery. “We aimed to explore potential predictors of postoperative olfactory decline,” Dr. Wu said.

Overall, the investigators enrolled 78 patients with CRS in the study, where they received an olfactory assessment prior to and 3 months after endoscopic sinus surgery. The investigators used Sniffin’ Sticks (Burghardt; Wedel, Germany), a 12-item psychophysical smell test that uses everyday odors to conduct the olfactory assessment. If patients had a decrease in their threshold-discrimination-identification (TDI) score after surgery, they were determined to have olfactory deterioration. Prior to surgery, investigators measured olfactory cleft opacification using CT, with the olfactory cleft endoscopy scale used after surgery. The investigators also sampled patients’ superior turbinates at the time of surgery.

The results showed 23 of 78 patients (29.49%) had olfactory decline at 3 months after endoscopic sinus surgery. Those patients with olfactory decline had significantly higher tissue, blood eosinophil levels, and TDI scores before surgery, compared with patients with CRS who did not have any loss of smell. Patients with olfactory decline also had olfactory cleft opacification and olfactory cleft endoscopy scale scores, compared with patients who had no loss of smell after surgery.

One factor that predicted olfactory decline in these patients was an absolute count of 23.5 eosinophils per high-power field in the superior turbinate, researchers said (area under the ROC curve, 0.901). “Continuous elimination of the eosinophilic inflammation within the olfactory cleft in CRS patients with olfactory dysfunction may prevent the olfactory fluctuation after endoscopic sinus surgery,” Dr. Wu said.

Dr. Wu reports no relevant conflicts of interest.

SOURCE: Wu D et al. AAAAI. Abstract L7.

Olfactory decline in patients with chronic rhinosinusitis (CRS) after endoscopic sinus surgery is linked to superior turbinate eosinophilia, according to recent research released as an abstract from the American Academy of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology annual meeting. The AAAAI canceled the meeting and provided abstracts and access to presenters for press coverage.

© Siri Stafford/Thinkstock

“Superior turbinate eosinophilia is highly associated with the olfactory decline in CRS patients 3 months after endoscopic sinus surgery,” Dawei Wu, MD, of Beijing Anzhen Hospital, Capital Medical University in Beijing, China, said in an interview.

There has been some research in the literature pointing to the link between CRS-associated olfactory dysfunction and superior turbinate eosinophilia. In a 2017 study, Lavin et al. found eosinophil markers in the superior turbinate tissue were elevated in patients with CRS with nasal polyps. One of the gene expressions of the eosinophil marker Charcot Leyden crystal protein (CLC) was inversely associated with olfactory threshold, which led the researchers to believe there was a link between olfactory decline and superior turbinate eosinophilia in these patients (Laryngoscope. 2017 Oct;127[10]:2210-2218).

Olfactory decline associated with CRS is the most common reason for loss of smell in ear, nose, and throat clinics, Dr. Wu said, but predicting this olfactory decline after endoscopic sinus surgery can be clinically challenging.

“The distinct feature of this smell disorder is the fluctuation in olfactory dysfunction which is mainly due to the recurrence of inflammation within the olfactory cleft. Notably, the level of eosinophils within the olfactory cleft significantly and positively correlated with the degree of olfactory dysfunction in patients with CRS both pre- and postoperatively,” he said.

Dr. Wu and colleagues conducted a prospective study to determine whether there was a link in CRS patients between preoperative superior turbinate eosinophilia and olfactory dysfunction after endoscopic sinus surgery. “We aimed to explore potential predictors of postoperative olfactory decline,” Dr. Wu said.

Overall, the investigators enrolled 78 patients with CRS in the study, where they received an olfactory assessment prior to and 3 months after endoscopic sinus surgery. The investigators used Sniffin’ Sticks (Burghardt; Wedel, Germany), a 12-item psychophysical smell test that uses everyday odors to conduct the olfactory assessment. If patients had a decrease in their threshold-discrimination-identification (TDI) score after surgery, they were determined to have olfactory deterioration. Prior to surgery, investigators measured olfactory cleft opacification using CT, with the olfactory cleft endoscopy scale used after surgery. The investigators also sampled patients’ superior turbinates at the time of surgery.

The results showed 23 of 78 patients (29.49%) had olfactory decline at 3 months after endoscopic sinus surgery. Those patients with olfactory decline had significantly higher tissue, blood eosinophil levels, and TDI scores before surgery, compared with patients with CRS who did not have any loss of smell. Patients with olfactory decline also had olfactory cleft opacification and olfactory cleft endoscopy scale scores, compared with patients who had no loss of smell after surgery.

One factor that predicted olfactory decline in these patients was an absolute count of 23.5 eosinophils per high-power field in the superior turbinate, researchers said (area under the ROC curve, 0.901). “Continuous elimination of the eosinophilic inflammation within the olfactory cleft in CRS patients with olfactory dysfunction may prevent the olfactory fluctuation after endoscopic sinus surgery,” Dr. Wu said.

Dr. Wu reports no relevant conflicts of interest.

SOURCE: Wu D et al. AAAAI. Abstract L7.

Olfactory decline in patients with chronic rhinosinusitis (CRS) after endoscopic sinus surgery is linked to superior turbinate eosinophilia, according to recent research released as an abstract from the American Academy of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology annual meeting. The AAAAI canceled the meeting and provided abstracts and access to presenters for press coverage.

© Siri Stafford/Thinkstock

“Superior turbinate eosinophilia is highly associated with the olfactory decline in CRS patients 3 months after endoscopic sinus surgery,” Dawei Wu, MD, of Beijing Anzhen Hospital, Capital Medical University in Beijing, China, said in an interview.

There has been some research in the literature pointing to the link between CRS-associated olfactory dysfunction and superior turbinate eosinophilia. In a 2017 study, Lavin et al. found eosinophil markers in the superior turbinate tissue were elevated in patients with CRS with nasal polyps. One of the gene expressions of the eosinophil marker Charcot Leyden crystal protein (CLC) was inversely associated with olfactory threshold, which led the researchers to believe there was a link between olfactory decline and superior turbinate eosinophilia in these patients (Laryngoscope. 2017 Oct;127[10]:2210-2218).

Olfactory decline associated with CRS is the most common reason for loss of smell in ear, nose, and throat clinics, Dr. Wu said, but predicting this olfactory decline after endoscopic sinus surgery can be clinically challenging.

“The distinct feature of this smell disorder is the fluctuation in olfactory dysfunction which is mainly due to the recurrence of inflammation within the olfactory cleft. Notably, the level of eosinophils within the olfactory cleft significantly and positively correlated with the degree of olfactory dysfunction in patients with CRS both pre- and postoperatively,” he said.

Dr. Wu and colleagues conducted a prospective study to determine whether there was a link in CRS patients between preoperative superior turbinate eosinophilia and olfactory dysfunction after endoscopic sinus surgery. “We aimed to explore potential predictors of postoperative olfactory decline,” Dr. Wu said.

Overall, the investigators enrolled 78 patients with CRS in the study, where they received an olfactory assessment prior to and 3 months after endoscopic sinus surgery. The investigators used Sniffin’ Sticks (Burghardt; Wedel, Germany), a 12-item psychophysical smell test that uses everyday odors to conduct the olfactory assessment. If patients had a decrease in their threshold-discrimination-identification (TDI) score after surgery, they were determined to have olfactory deterioration. Prior to surgery, investigators measured olfactory cleft opacification using CT, with the olfactory cleft endoscopy scale used after surgery. The investigators also sampled patients’ superior turbinates at the time of surgery.

The results showed 23 of 78 patients (29.49%) had olfactory decline at 3 months after endoscopic sinus surgery. Those patients with olfactory decline had significantly higher tissue, blood eosinophil levels, and TDI scores before surgery, compared with patients with CRS who did not have any loss of smell. Patients with olfactory decline also had olfactory cleft opacification and olfactory cleft endoscopy scale scores, compared with patients who had no loss of smell after surgery.

One factor that predicted olfactory decline in these patients was an absolute count of 23.5 eosinophils per high-power field in the superior turbinate, researchers said (area under the ROC curve, 0.901). “Continuous elimination of the eosinophilic inflammation within the olfactory cleft in CRS patients with olfactory dysfunction may prevent the olfactory fluctuation after endoscopic sinus surgery,” Dr. Wu said.

Dr. Wu reports no relevant conflicts of interest.

SOURCE: Wu D et al. AAAAI. Abstract L7.

Early results from the massive National Cardiovascular Data Registry Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion Registry indicate that the rollout of the Watchman device into routine clinical practice is going smoothly, with a higher implant success rate and a substantially lower in-hospital complication rate than that seen in the pivotal randomized clinical trials, James V. Freeman, MD, reported at the joint scientific sessions of the American College of Cardiology and the World Heart Federation. The meeting was conducted online after its cancellation because of the COVID-19 pandemic.

American College of Cardiology

These real-world results are particularly impressive because the 38,158 registry participants were on average significantly older and sicker than were patients in the clinical trials. They were at higher risk of both stroke and bleeding, yet they fared better in terms of procedural safety, observed Dr. Freeman, an electrophysiologist and director of the Yale University Atrial Fibrillation Center in New Haven, Conn.

“You always worry that once you get outside of the clinical trials setting and you roll out to a large number of centers, including some that are relatively low volume, that you’re going to start to see higher rates of complications. And overall, broadly speaking, the rates of adverse events were quite reassuring,” he said.

The registry, maintained by the ACC, serves as the postmarketing surveillance tool mandated by the Food and Drug Administration and Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. The 38,158 participants make this registry the world’s largest patient experience with the Watchman device by many orders of magnitude. Dr. Freeman’s report included patients enrolled during 2016-2018 who were treated at 495 hospitals by 1,318 physician interventionalists. CMS reimbursement requires participation in the registry, which captures more than 95% of all Watchman procedures done in the United States. Although Dr. Freeman presented only the acute in-hospital outcomes, active follow-up for adverse events and medical therapy will be conducted at 45 days, 6 months, and 1 and 2 years.

Participants in the Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion (LAAO) Registry averaged 76.1 years of age, which is 2-4 years older than patients in the pivotal PROTECT-AF and PREVAIL trials or the 1,025-patient EWOLUTION registry. The LAAO Registry participants had a mean CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4.6, compared with 3.4 in PROTECT-AF and 3.8 in PREVAIL. Their mean HAS BLED score was 3.0. Thirty percent had a prior ischemic stroke or transient ischemic attack, 12% had a prior intracranial hemorrhage, and 69% had a history of clinically relevant bleeding. Thirty percent had heart failure, 92% were hypertensive, and 30% had diabetes.

“The take home here is that these patients were at moderate to high risk of stroke and they also carried a high risk of bleeding and therefore had some relative contraindication to anticoagulation,” according to the cardiologist. “The patient population overall is really in accordance with the CMS guidance. We’re not seeing a lot of patients who are getting this device for a lifestyle indication. Most of these patients are really stuck between a rock and a hard place.”

Most hospitals offering the Watchman did 10-40 cases per year. The median annual physician volume was 12 cases. However, there was substantial variation in both hospital and physician volumes.

The device was deployed in 93% of procedures attempted; roughly half of cancellations were cause by LAAO thrombus detected on the day of the procedure. The acute procedural success rate when the device was deployed was 98.3%, compared with 90.9% in PROTECT-AF and 95.1% in PREVAIL. The rate of device margin residual leak of 5 mm or more among registry participants with an acutely successful procedure was 0.2%.

The rate of any major in-hospital complication in the LAAO Registry was 2.16%, the most common of which was pericardial effusion requiring intervention, which occurred in 1.39% of cases. The major bleeding rate was 1.25%. The stroke/transient ischemic attack rate was 0.17%. Systemic arterial embolism was a rare event, occurring in less than 0.01% of patients, as was acute MI, with an incidence of 0.04%. Device embolization occurred in 0.07% of patients.

By comparison, the 7-day rate of pericardial effusion requiring intervention was 4.0% in PROTECT-AF and 1.9% in PREVAIL, with procedure-related stroke rates of 1.1% and 0.7%, respectively, and device embolization rates of 0.4% and 0.7%. The major bleeding rate in PROTECT-AF was 3.5%, nearly triple that in the real-world registry.

Discussant Mark A. Estes, MD, characterized the acute outcomes in the LAAO Registry as “an improvement – a considerable improvement – over some of the early data in PREVAIL and PROTECT-AF.” He credited this to the “very robust validation procedure” the Watchman closure device has undergone, which included the clinical trials, regulatory requirements for training and patient selection, and mandatory reporting of outcomes in the registry.

He noted that a lot is happening now with the Watchman device. There are a couple of dozen prospective clinical trials, including one on the Watchman versus direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) therapy and another on left atrial ablation plus left atrial appendage closure versus a DOAC. A new-generation Watchman device, the Watchman FLX, is approved in Europe and undergoing an ongoing FDA-mandated approval trial in the United States.

“It has a lot of technical advantages,” according to Dr. Estes, an electrophysiologist and professor of medicine at the University of Pittsburgh.

Current guidelines give LAAO a class IIb rating, meaning it “could be considered” in patients with atrial fibrillation at increased risk of stroke who have a contraindication to long-term anticoagulation. Dr. Estes asked: Does the LAAO Registry data warrant a rating upgrade to a stronger recommendation?

Dr. Freeman replied that the new data should allay the guideline writers’ and government regulators’ concerns regarding acute procedural safety. But that’s only part of the picture. He and his coinvestigators are busy gathering data on intermediate-term outcomes, analyzing the impact of various strategies for periprocedural and long-term management of antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications with an eye toward identifying best practices, and investigating the relationship between procedural volume and outcomes, information, which could have an impact on the next iteration of the guidelines.

Simultaneous with his presentation at ACC 2020, the study was published online (J Am Coll Cardiol. 2020 Mar 13;75[13]1503-18).

In an accompanying editorial, Dhanunjaya Lakkireddy, MD, commented that an important contribution of the LAAO Registry is its inclusion of an enormous number of patients with contraindications to oral anticoagulation, a population excluded from the PROTECT-AF and PREVAIL randomized trials.

The short-term results of the registry suggest a relaxation of the current strict requirement for surgical backup during Watchman procedures is in order, added Dr. Lakkireddy, professor of medicine at the University of Missouri, Columbia, and medical director of the Kansas City Heart Rhythm Institute (J Am Coll Cardiol. 2020 Mar 13;75[13]:1519-22).

Dr. Freeman reported serving as a consultant to Boston Scientific, which markets the Watchman, as well as to Medtronic, Janssen, and Biosense Webster.

bjancin@mdedge.com

SOURCE: Freeman JF. ACC 2020, Abstract 409-10.

Early results from the massive National Cardiovascular Data Registry Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion Registry indicate that the rollout of the Watchman device into routine clinical practice is going smoothly, with a higher implant success rate and a substantially lower in-hospital complication rate than that seen in the pivotal randomized clinical trials, James V. Freeman, MD, reported at the joint scientific sessions of the American College of Cardiology and the World Heart Federation. The meeting was conducted online after its cancellation because of the COVID-19 pandemic.

American College of Cardiology

These real-world results are particularly impressive because the 38,158 registry participants were on average significantly older and sicker than were patients in the clinical trials. They were at higher risk of both stroke and bleeding, yet they fared better in terms of procedural safety, observed Dr. Freeman, an electrophysiologist and director of the Yale University Atrial Fibrillation Center in New Haven, Conn.

“You always worry that once you get outside of the clinical trials setting and you roll out to a large number of centers, including some that are relatively low volume, that you’re going to start to see higher rates of complications. And overall, broadly speaking, the rates of adverse events were quite reassuring,” he said.

The registry, maintained by the ACC, serves as the postmarketing surveillance tool mandated by the Food and Drug Administration and Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. The 38,158 participants make this registry the world’s largest patient experience with the Watchman device by many orders of magnitude. Dr. Freeman’s report included patients enrolled during 2016-2018 who were treated at 495 hospitals by 1,318 physician interventionalists. CMS reimbursement requires participation in the registry, which captures more than 95% of all Watchman procedures done in the United States. Although Dr. Freeman presented only the acute in-hospital outcomes, active follow-up for adverse events and medical therapy will be conducted at 45 days, 6 months, and 1 and 2 years.

Participants in the Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion (LAAO) Registry averaged 76.1 years of age, which is 2-4 years older than patients in the pivotal PROTECT-AF and PREVAIL trials or the 1,025-patient EWOLUTION registry. The LAAO Registry participants had a mean CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4.6, compared with 3.4 in PROTECT-AF and 3.8 in PREVAIL. Their mean HAS BLED score was 3.0. Thirty percent had a prior ischemic stroke or transient ischemic attack, 12% had a prior intracranial hemorrhage, and 69% had a history of clinically relevant bleeding. Thirty percent had heart failure, 92% were hypertensive, and 30% had diabetes.

“The take home here is that these patients were at moderate to high risk of stroke and they also carried a high risk of bleeding and therefore had some relative contraindication to anticoagulation,” according to the cardiologist. “The patient population overall is really in accordance with the CMS guidance. We’re not seeing a lot of patients who are getting this device for a lifestyle indication. Most of these patients are really stuck between a rock and a hard place.”

Most hospitals offering the Watchman did 10-40 cases per year. The median annual physician volume was 12 cases. However, there was substantial variation in both hospital and physician volumes.

The device was deployed in 93% of procedures attempted; roughly half of cancellations were cause by LAAO thrombus detected on the day of the procedure. The acute procedural success rate when the device was deployed was 98.3%, compared with 90.9% in PROTECT-AF and 95.1% in PREVAIL. The rate of device margin residual leak of 5 mm or more among registry participants with an acutely successful procedure was 0.2%.

The rate of any major in-hospital complication in the LAAO Registry was 2.16%, the most common of which was pericardial effusion requiring intervention, which occurred in 1.39% of cases. The major bleeding rate was 1.25%. The stroke/transient ischemic attack rate was 0.17%. Systemic arterial embolism was a rare event, occurring in less than 0.01% of patients, as was acute MI, with an incidence of 0.04%. Device embolization occurred in 0.07% of patients.

By comparison, the 7-day rate of pericardial effusion requiring intervention was 4.0% in PROTECT-AF and 1.9% in PREVAIL, with procedure-related stroke rates of 1.1% and 0.7%, respectively, and device embolization rates of 0.4% and 0.7%. The major bleeding rate in PROTECT-AF was 3.5%, nearly triple that in the real-world registry.

Discussant Mark A. Estes, MD, characterized the acute outcomes in the LAAO Registry as “an improvement – a considerable improvement – over some of the early data in PREVAIL and PROTECT-AF.” He credited this to the “very robust validation procedure” the Watchman closure device has undergone, which included the clinical trials, regulatory requirements for training and patient selection, and mandatory reporting of outcomes in the registry.

He noted that a lot is happening now with the Watchman device. There are a couple of dozen prospective clinical trials, including one on the Watchman versus direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) therapy and another on left atrial ablation plus left atrial appendage closure versus a DOAC. A new-generation Watchman device, the Watchman FLX, is approved in Europe and undergoing an ongoing FDA-mandated approval trial in the United States.

“It has a lot of technical advantages,” according to Dr. Estes, an electrophysiologist and professor of medicine at the University of Pittsburgh.

Current guidelines give LAAO a class IIb rating, meaning it “could be considered” in patients with atrial fibrillation at increased risk of stroke who have a contraindication to long-term anticoagulation. Dr. Estes asked: Does the LAAO Registry data warrant a rating upgrade to a stronger recommendation?

Dr. Freeman replied that the new data should allay the guideline writers’ and government regulators’ concerns regarding acute procedural safety. But that’s only part of the picture. He and his coinvestigators are busy gathering data on intermediate-term outcomes, analyzing the impact of various strategies for periprocedural and long-term management of antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications with an eye toward identifying best practices, and investigating the relationship between procedural volume and outcomes, information, which could have an impact on the next iteration of the guidelines.

Simultaneous with his presentation at ACC 2020, the study was published online (J Am Coll Cardiol. 2020 Mar 13;75[13]1503-18).

In an accompanying editorial, Dhanunjaya Lakkireddy, MD, commented that an important contribution of the LAAO Registry is its inclusion of an enormous number of patients with contraindications to oral anticoagulation, a population excluded from the PROTECT-AF and PREVAIL randomized trials.

The short-term results of the registry suggest a relaxation of the current strict requirement for surgical backup during Watchman procedures is in order, added Dr. Lakkireddy, professor of medicine at the University of Missouri, Columbia, and medical director of the Kansas City Heart Rhythm Institute (J Am Coll Cardiol. 2020 Mar 13;75[13]:1519-22).

Dr. Freeman reported serving as a consultant to Boston Scientific, which markets the Watchman, as well as to Medtronic, Janssen, and Biosense Webster.

bjancin@mdedge.com

SOURCE: Freeman JF. ACC 2020, Abstract 409-10.

Early results from the massive National Cardiovascular Data Registry Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion Registry indicate that the rollout of the Watchman device into routine clinical practice is going smoothly, with a higher implant success rate and a substantially lower in-hospital complication rate than that seen in the pivotal randomized clinical trials, James V. Freeman, MD, reported at the joint scientific sessions of the American College of Cardiology and the World Heart Federation. The meeting was conducted online after its cancellation because of the COVID-19 pandemic.

American College of Cardiology

These real-world results are particularly impressive because the 38,158 registry participants were on average significantly older and sicker than were patients in the clinical trials. They were at higher risk of both stroke and bleeding, yet they fared better in terms of procedural safety, observed Dr. Freeman, an electrophysiologist and director of the Yale University Atrial Fibrillation Center in New Haven, Conn.

“You always worry that once you get outside of the clinical trials setting and you roll out to a large number of centers, including some that are relatively low volume, that you’re going to start to see higher rates of complications. And overall, broadly speaking, the rates of adverse events were quite reassuring,” he said.

The registry, maintained by the ACC, serves as the postmarketing surveillance tool mandated by the Food and Drug Administration and Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. The 38,158 participants make this registry the world’s largest patient experience with the Watchman device by many orders of magnitude. Dr. Freeman’s report included patients enrolled during 2016-2018 who were treated at 495 hospitals by 1,318 physician interventionalists. CMS reimbursement requires participation in the registry, which captures more than 95% of all Watchman procedures done in the United States. Although Dr. Freeman presented only the acute in-hospital outcomes, active follow-up for adverse events and medical therapy will be conducted at 45 days, 6 months, and 1 and 2 years.

Participants in the Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion (LAAO) Registry averaged 76.1 years of age, which is 2-4 years older than patients in the pivotal PROTECT-AF and PREVAIL trials or the 1,025-patient EWOLUTION registry. The LAAO Registry participants had a mean CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4.6, compared with 3.4 in PROTECT-AF and 3.8 in PREVAIL. Their mean HAS BLED score was 3.0. Thirty percent had a prior ischemic stroke or transient ischemic attack, 12% had a prior intracranial hemorrhage, and 69% had a history of clinically relevant bleeding. Thirty percent had heart failure, 92% were hypertensive, and 30% had diabetes.

“The take home here is that these patients were at moderate to high risk of stroke and they also carried a high risk of bleeding and therefore had some relative contraindication to anticoagulation,” according to the cardiologist. “The patient population overall is really in accordance with the CMS guidance. We’re not seeing a lot of patients who are getting this device for a lifestyle indication. Most of these patients are really stuck between a rock and a hard place.”

Most hospitals offering the Watchman did 10-40 cases per year. The median annual physician volume was 12 cases. However, there was substantial variation in both hospital and physician volumes.

The device was deployed in 93% of procedures attempted; roughly half of cancellations were cause by LAAO thrombus detected on the day of the procedure. The acute procedural success rate when the device was deployed was 98.3%, compared with 90.9% in PROTECT-AF and 95.1% in PREVAIL. The rate of device margin residual leak of 5 mm or more among registry participants with an acutely successful procedure was 0.2%.

The rate of any major in-hospital complication in the LAAO Registry was 2.16%, the most common of which was pericardial effusion requiring intervention, which occurred in 1.39% of cases. The major bleeding rate was 1.25%. The stroke/transient ischemic attack rate was 0.17%. Systemic arterial embolism was a rare event, occurring in less than 0.01% of patients, as was acute MI, with an incidence of 0.04%. Device embolization occurred in 0.07% of patients.

By comparison, the 7-day rate of pericardial effusion requiring intervention was 4.0% in PROTECT-AF and 1.9% in PREVAIL, with procedure-related stroke rates of 1.1% and 0.7%, respectively, and device embolization rates of 0.4% and 0.7%. The major bleeding rate in PROTECT-AF was 3.5%, nearly triple that in the real-world registry.

Discussant Mark A. Estes, MD, characterized the acute outcomes in the LAAO Registry as “an improvement – a considerable improvement – over some of the early data in PREVAIL and PROTECT-AF.” He credited this to the “very robust validation procedure” the Watchman closure device has undergone, which included the clinical trials, regulatory requirements for training and patient selection, and mandatory reporting of outcomes in the registry.

He noted that a lot is happening now with the Watchman device. There are a couple of dozen prospective clinical trials, including one on the Watchman versus direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) therapy and another on left atrial ablation plus left atrial appendage closure versus a DOAC. A new-generation Watchman device, the Watchman FLX, is approved in Europe and undergoing an ongoing FDA-mandated approval trial in the United States.

“It has a lot of technical advantages,” according to Dr. Estes, an electrophysiologist and professor of medicine at the University of Pittsburgh.

Current guidelines give LAAO a class IIb rating, meaning it “could be considered” in patients with atrial fibrillation at increased risk of stroke who have a contraindication to long-term anticoagulation. Dr. Estes asked: Does the LAAO Registry data warrant a rating upgrade to a stronger recommendation?

Dr. Freeman replied that the new data should allay the guideline writers’ and government regulators’ concerns regarding acute procedural safety. But that’s only part of the picture. He and his coinvestigators are busy gathering data on intermediate-term outcomes, analyzing the impact of various strategies for periprocedural and long-term management of antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications with an eye toward identifying best practices, and investigating the relationship between procedural volume and outcomes, information, which could have an impact on the next iteration of the guidelines.

Simultaneous with his presentation at ACC 2020, the study was published online (J Am Coll Cardiol. 2020 Mar 13;75[13]1503-18).

In an accompanying editorial, Dhanunjaya Lakkireddy, MD, commented that an important contribution of the LAAO Registry is its inclusion of an enormous number of patients with contraindications to oral anticoagulation, a population excluded from the PROTECT-AF and PREVAIL randomized trials.

The short-term results of the registry suggest a relaxation of the current strict requirement for surgical backup during Watchman procedures is in order, added Dr. Lakkireddy, professor of medicine at the University of Missouri, Columbia, and medical director of the Kansas City Heart Rhythm Institute (J Am Coll Cardiol. 2020 Mar 13;75[13]:1519-22).

Dr. Freeman reported serving as a consultant to Boston Scientific, which markets the Watchman, as well as to Medtronic, Janssen, and Biosense Webster.

bjancin@mdedge.com

SOURCE: Freeman JF. ACC 2020, Abstract 409-10.

June 9, 2020 — Editor’s note: The study on which this news story is based has been retracted by the journal. The retraction notice can be found here. 

Cotton and surgical masks were not effective at filtering SARS-CoV-2 during coughs from patients infected with the virus, according to Seongman Bae, MD, of the University of Ulsan College of Medicine in Seoul, South Korea, and associates.

The report was published in Annals of Internal Medicine.

Because the COVID-19 pandemic has caused a shortage of N95 and surgical masks, cotton masks have gained interest as a substitute, as surgical masks have been shown to effectively filter influenza virus, the researchers wrote. However, the size of and concentrations of SARS-CoV-2 in aerosols generated during coughing are unknown.

To compare the effectiveness of cotton and surgical masks, a group of patients infected with SARS-CoV-2 coughed into petri dishes while wearing no mask, a surgical mask, and a cotton mask. The mask surfaces were swabbed afterward to assess viral positivity on the mask itself.

The median nasopharyngeal and saliva viral load was 5.66 log copies/mL and 4.00 log copies/mL, respectively. The median viral loads after coughing was 2.56 log copies/mL without a mask, 2.42 log copies/mL with a surgical mask, and 1.85 log copies/mL with a cotton mask. All outer surfaces of the mask were positive for SARS-CoV-2, while most inner surfaces were negative.

The investigators acknowledged that the test did not include N95 masks and does not reflect the actual infection transmission, and that they didn’t know whether cotton or surgical masks shorten the travel distance of droplets while coughing.

“Further study is needed to recommend whether face masks decrease transmission of virus from asymptomatic individuals or those with suspected COVID-19 who are not coughing,” they added.

The study was funded by a grant from the government-wide R&D Fund Project for Infectious Disease Research. The investigators reported that they had no conflicts of interest.

lfranki@mdedge.com

SOURCE: Bae S et al. Ann Intern Med. 2020 Apr 6. doi: 10.7326/M20-1342.

Correction, 4/9/20: The headline of an earlier version of this article misstated a finding of this study. Whether cotton and surgical masks can block transmission was not investigated.

June 9, 2020 — Editor’s note: The study on which this news story is based has been retracted by the journal. The retraction notice can be found here. 

Cotton and surgical masks were not effective at filtering SARS-CoV-2 during coughs from patients infected with the virus, according to Seongman Bae, MD, of the University of Ulsan College of Medicine in Seoul, South Korea, and associates.

The report was published in Annals of Internal Medicine.

Because the COVID-19 pandemic has caused a shortage of N95 and surgical masks, cotton masks have gained interest as a substitute, as surgical masks have been shown to effectively filter influenza virus, the researchers wrote. However, the size of and concentrations of SARS-CoV-2 in aerosols generated during coughing are unknown.

To compare the effectiveness of cotton and surgical masks, a group of patients infected with SARS-CoV-2 coughed into petri dishes while wearing no mask, a surgical mask, and a cotton mask. The mask surfaces were swabbed afterward to assess viral positivity on the mask itself.

The median nasopharyngeal and saliva viral load was 5.66 log copies/mL and 4.00 log copies/mL, respectively. The median viral loads after coughing was 2.56 log copies/mL without a mask, 2.42 log copies/mL with a surgical mask, and 1.85 log copies/mL with a cotton mask. All outer surfaces of the mask were positive for SARS-CoV-2, while most inner surfaces were negative.

The investigators acknowledged that the test did not include N95 masks and does not reflect the actual infection transmission, and that they didn’t know whether cotton or surgical masks shorten the travel distance of droplets while coughing.

“Further study is needed to recommend whether face masks decrease transmission of virus from asymptomatic individuals or those with suspected COVID-19 who are not coughing,” they added.

The study was funded by a grant from the government-wide R&D Fund Project for Infectious Disease Research. The investigators reported that they had no conflicts of interest.

lfranki@mdedge.com

SOURCE: Bae S et al. Ann Intern Med. 2020 Apr 6. doi: 10.7326/M20-1342.

Correction, 4/9/20: The headline of an earlier version of this article misstated a finding of this study. Whether cotton and surgical masks can block transmission was not investigated.

June 9, 2020 — Editor’s note: The study on which this news story is based has been retracted by the journal. The retraction notice can be found here. 

Cotton and surgical masks were not effective at filtering SARS-CoV-2 during coughs from patients infected with the virus, according to Seongman Bae, MD, of the University of Ulsan College of Medicine in Seoul, South Korea, and associates.

The report was published in Annals of Internal Medicine.

Because the COVID-19 pandemic has caused a shortage of N95 and surgical masks, cotton masks have gained interest as a substitute, as surgical masks have been shown to effectively filter influenza virus, the researchers wrote. However, the size of and concentrations of SARS-CoV-2 in aerosols generated during coughing are unknown.

To compare the effectiveness of cotton and surgical masks, a group of patients infected with SARS-CoV-2 coughed into petri dishes while wearing no mask, a surgical mask, and a cotton mask. The mask surfaces were swabbed afterward to assess viral positivity on the mask itself.

The median nasopharyngeal and saliva viral load was 5.66 log copies/mL and 4.00 log copies/mL, respectively. The median viral loads after coughing was 2.56 log copies/mL without a mask, 2.42 log copies/mL with a surgical mask, and 1.85 log copies/mL with a cotton mask. All outer surfaces of the mask were positive for SARS-CoV-2, while most inner surfaces were negative.

The investigators acknowledged that the test did not include N95 masks and does not reflect the actual infection transmission, and that they didn’t know whether cotton or surgical masks shorten the travel distance of droplets while coughing.

“Further study is needed to recommend whether face masks decrease transmission of virus from asymptomatic individuals or those with suspected COVID-19 who are not coughing,” they added.

The study was funded by a grant from the government-wide R&D Fund Project for Infectious Disease Research. The investigators reported that they had no conflicts of interest.

lfranki@mdedge.com

SOURCE: Bae S et al. Ann Intern Med. 2020 Apr 6. doi: 10.7326/M20-1342.

Correction, 4/9/20: The headline of an earlier version of this article misstated a finding of this study. Whether cotton and surgical masks can block transmission was not investigated.

►Zachary Reese, MD, Chief Medical Resident, VABHS and Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center (BIDMC):Dr. Weller, the differential diagnosis for altered mental status is quite broad. How does the presence of clonus change or focus your approach to altered mental status?

►Jason Weller, MD, Instructor of Neurology, Boston Medical Center (BMC) and VABHS:The presence of clonus does not significantly narrow the differential. It does, however, suggest a central component to the patient’s altered mental status. Specifically, it implies that the underlying process, whether systemic or neurologic, interferes with central nervous system (CNS) control of the neuromuscular system.¹ The differential is still quite broad and includes metabolic derangements (eg, uremia, electrolyte disturbances, hypercarbia, and thyroid dysfunction), medication toxicity from olanzapine or duloxetine, and vascular processes (eg, CNS vasculitis). Infectious etiologies, both within the CNS and systemically, can cause encephalopathy, as can autoimmune processes, such as immune-mediated encephalitis. Finally, primary neurologic conditions such as myoclonic epilepsy can be considered. Given the patient’s medical history, serotonin syndrome must be considered.

►Dr. Reese: Given the concern for serotonin syndrome, the admitting medical team discontinued the patient’s duloxetine. Dr. Weller, what is the pathophysiology of serotonin syndrome, and how is it diagnosed?

►Dr. Weller: Serotonin is ubiquitous throughout the body and brain. Serotonin syndrome is caused by excess endogenous or exogenous serotonin, and this is usually caused by a variety of medications. The symptoms range from tachycardia, agitation, and diaphoresis to sustained clonus, hyperthermia, and shock.^2,3 The extent of serotonin syndrome is typically thought to reflect the degree of serotonergic activity.⁴

Serotonin syndrome is a clinical diagnosis. While there are no tests that can confirm the diagnosis, the Hunter criteria can be used to assist with making the diagnosis.⁵ Per the Hunter criteria, a patient can be diagnosed with serotonin syndrome if they have taken a serotonergic agent and have at least 1 of the following: spontaneous clonus, inducible or ocular clonus with agitation or diaphoresis, tremor and hyperreflexia, or hypertonia with fever and clonus. This patient had taken duloxetine and had inducible clonus and diaphoresis, thus suggesting a diagnosis of serotonin syndrome.

►Dr. Reese: Aside from selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), are there other medications that we typically prescribe that can cause serotonin syndrome?

►Dr. Weller: In addition to SSRIs and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), other commonly prescribed medications that can cause serotonin syndrome are 5-HT3 antagonists (eg, ondansetron), 5-HT agonists (eg, triptans), and opioids (eg, fentanyl and tramadol). There are also case reports of atypical antipsychotics (eg, olanzapine) causing serotonin syndrome because of their antagonism of the 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors.² Additionally, linezolid is commonly overlooked as a cause of serotonin syndrome given its action as a monoamine oxidase inhibitor.⁴ In this patient, it would be prudent to discontinue olanzapine and duloxetine.

►Dr. Reese: Duloxetine, olanzapine, and buprenorphine/naloxone were discontinuedgiven concern for serotonin syndrome. Although there are not strong data that buprenorphine/ naloxone can cause serotonin syndrome, the team discontinued the medication in case it might be contributing to the patient’s encephalopathy, while closely monitoring the patient for withdrawal. There was a rapid improvement in the patient’s symptoms over the 24 hours after discontinuation of the 3 medications.

As part of the initial workup, the patient received a computed tomography (CT) scan of his chest to follow up pulmonary nodules identified 16 months prior. The CT scan showed interval growth of the pulmonary nodules in the right lower lobe to 2 cm with extension into the major fissure, which was concerning for malignancy. Plans were made for an outpatient positron emission tomography (PET) scan after hospital discharge.

Dr. Schlechter and Dr. Rangachari, what factors can help us determine whether or not further workup of a malignancy should occur before discharge or can be deferred to the outpatient setting?

►Benjamin Schlechter, MD, Instructor in Medicine, BIDMC; and Deepa Rangachari, MD, Assistant Professor of Medicine, BIDMC: Key considerations in this domain include rapidity of growth and any threat to critical end-organ function (ie, brain, heart, lungs, kidney, and liver). If the malignancy is bulky and/or rapidly progressing to the point that the patient has significant symptoms burden and/or end-organ dysfunction, then initiating the evaluation as an inpatient may be necessary. For suspected intrathoracic malignancies, considering whether this may be a high-grade process (ie, small cell lung cancer) is often a vital branch point. Key considerations in this regard are the following: Is it a bulky central tumor? Is there evidence of widespread metastatic disease, an obstructing mass, and/or tumor lysis? One final and critical aspect to consider is whether there are any patient- specific barriers to timely and reliable outpatient follow-up. If there is no evidence of rapid progression, bulky disease with threatened end-organ involvement, and/or issues with timely and reliable follow-up, then outpatient evaluation is often the best approach to ensure a comprehensive and well-coordinated effort on the patient’s behalf.

►Dr. Reese: Buprenorphine/naloxone was restarted without return of the symptoms. The patient was discharged home with an outpatient PET scan scheduled the following week. Unfortunately, the patient was unable to keep this appointment. Three weeks after hospital discharge, the patient presented again to the emergency department with gradually worsening altered mental status, confusion, visual hallucinations, and myoclonic jerking of the arms and legs. Medication adherence was confirmed by the patient’s wife, resulting in a low concern for serotonin syndrome. Physical examination revealed confusion, dysarthria, diffuse, arrhythmic, myoclonic jerking in all extremities, asterixis in the upper extremities, and hyperreflexia.

A CT scan of the brain did not reveal an intracranial process. A spot electroencephalograph (EEG) and magnetic resonance image (MRI) of the brain were obtained. Dr. Weller, what is the utility of spot EEG vs 24-hour EEG? When might we choose one over the other?

►Dr. Weller: If a patient is persistently altered, then a spot EEG would be sufficient to capture a seizure if that is what is causing the patient’s altered mental status. However, if the patient’s mental status is waxing and waning, then that may warrant a 24-hour EEG because the patient may need to be monitored for longer periods to capture an event that is causing intermittent alterations in mental status.6 Additionally, patients who are acutely ill may require long-term monitoring for the purpose of treatment and outcome management.

►Dr. Reese: The spot EEG showed nearly continuous generalized slowing indicative of a diffuse encephalopathy. The MRI of the brain showed scattered, nonspecific periventricular T2 hyperintense foci, suggestive of advanced chronic microvascular ischemic changes.

A PET CT was obtained and revealed mildly fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG)-avid, enlarging nodules within the right lower lobe, which was suspicious for malignancy. There were no other areas of FDG avidity on the PET scan. Valproic acid was initiated for treatment of myoclonus with transition to clonazepam when no improvement was seen. After starting clonazepam, the patient’s condition stabilized.

Dr. Weller, given the additional history, how has your differential diagnosis changed?

►Dr. Weller: Given the patient’s laboratory findings, we can be quite sure that there is not a contributing metabolic process. The findings suggestive of metastatic cancer, along with the profound neurologic changes, are most concerning for a paraneoplastic syndrome. I would suggest biopsy and consideration of a lumbar puncture. One can also send serum markers, including a paraneoplastic antibody panel.

►Dr. Reese: Biopsy of the mass in his right lower lobe revealed squamous cell lung cancer. Dr. Schlechter and Dr. Rangachari, do you have a framework for the different forms of lung cancer?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: The 2 broad categories of lung cancer are small cell and non-small cell (NSCLC). Small cell lung cancer has a tight association with tobacco exposure and is often clinically defined by rapid, bulky progression (ie, weeks to months).^7,8 NSCLCs are also commonly seen in those with tobacco exposure, though not always. The main subgroups in this category are adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. These cancers often evolve at a slower pace (ie, months to years).⁸ While small cell lung cancers are highgrade tumors and exquisitely sensitive to chemotherapy and radiation, NSCLCs tend to be less responsive to such therapies. The staging evaluation for either entity is the same and consists of defining localized vs metastatic disease.

►Dr. Reese: Because this patient had an MRI and PET scan that were both negative for metastatic disease, can we assume that this patient had stage I NSCLC?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: Not necessarily. While PET and MRI brain are exceptionally helpful in detecting distant metastases, they may over- or underestimate intrathoracic lymph node involvement by as much as 20%.⁹ As such, dedicated lymph node staging—either via bronchoscopy (endobronchial ultrasound) or surgically (mediastinoscopy) is indicated as lymph node involvement can significantly alter the stage, prognosis, and optimal therapeutic approach.^10,11

►Dr. Reese: After this diagnosis was made, the teams caring for this patient attributed his altered mental status to a paraneoplastic syndrome. What is a paraneoplastic syndrome, and how does a paraneoplastic syndrome from malignancy present? Does its presence worsen a patient’s prognosis?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: A paraneoplastic syndrome is defined by an immunologic response to the cancer that ends up erroneously targeting self-antigens. Paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with a broad array of clinical findings—from endocrinopathy to encephalopathy—and certain neoplasms are more commonly associated with these syndromes than others (eg, small cell lung cancer and thymoma). Further, severity and onset of a paraneoplastic syndrome does not correlate with the burden of visible disease—and the syndrome may predate the cancer diagnosis by months to years.¹¹ While treatment of the cancer affords the best hope of resolving the paraneoplastic syndrome, the cancer and the paraneoplastic process may have a discordant trajectory, with the paraneoplastic syndrome persisting even after the cancer is maximally treated. Although one might assume that paraneoplastic syndromes portend worse outcomes, in some cases, a presentation with the paraneoplastic syndrome may afford sooner detection of an otherwise occult/asymptomatic malignancy.

►Dr. Reese: The following week, the serum paraneoplastic antibody panel that tested for anti-Yo antibody, anti-Ri antibody,and anti-Hu antibody came back negative. Dr. Weller, what does this mean? Since we have yet to obtain a lumbar puncture, might his symptoms still be caused by a paraneoplastic syndrome?

►Dr. Weller: The negative serum test just means that he does not have antibodies to those 3 antibodies. There are now over 30 different paraneoplastic antibodies that have been discovered, and there are always more that are being discovered. So this negative test result does not exclude a paraneoplastic syndrome in the appropriate clinical context.12 Furthermore, the sensitivity and specificity for certain antibodies are different based upon source fluid, and cerebrospinal fluid testing would provide more diagnostic clarity. A negative test for paraneoplastic syndrome, by itself, would similarly not exclude a paraneoplastic syndrome. Often, empiric treatment is the best diagnostic option for paraneoplastic and autoimmune encephalopathies.

►Dr. Reese: The following week, the patient was discharged to rehabilitation with clonazepam for his symptoms and a scheduled follow-up. Given the patient’s frailty and medical comorbidities, thoracic surgery recommended consultation with radiation oncology. Dr. Schlechter and Dr. Rangachari, when do we decide to use radiation vs chemotherapy for someone with lung cancer?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: Patients with early stage, nonmetastatic NSCLC may not always be candidates for surgical resection on the basis of pulmonary function, other medical comorbidities (as in this case), anatomic considerations, and/or patient preference. In these cases, if there is lung-limited disease without lymph node involvement (ie, stage I/II NSCLC) and the patient is not felt to be an operative candidate, then alternatives to surgery include either radiation or ablation.13,14 As we care for an aging and comorbid population, evolving evidence suggests that well-selected patients with early stage disease undergoing these nonoperative approaches have roughly equivalent outcomes to those undergoing conventional surgical resection.13 In such cases, multidisciplinary consultation with a team having dedicated expertise in these various operative and nonoperative modalities is essential.

►Dr. Reese: The patient followed up with radiation oncology for consideration of radiation treatment, but his simulation CT scan showed some ground-glass opacity that were concerning for inflammation vs infection. The patient’s case was discussed at the multidisciplinary tumor board, and it was determined to treat him with antibiotics for a possible pneumonia before proceeding with radiation therapy. After he completed antibiotic treatment, he underwent 10 fractions of radiation treatment, which he tolerated well.

►Zachary Reese, MD, Chief Medical Resident, VABHS and Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center (BIDMC):Dr. Weller, the differential diagnosis for altered mental status is quite broad. How does the presence of clonus change or focus your approach to altered mental status?

►Jason Weller, MD, Instructor of Neurology, Boston Medical Center (BMC) and VABHS:The presence of clonus does not significantly narrow the differential. It does, however, suggest a central component to the patient’s altered mental status. Specifically, it implies that the underlying process, whether systemic or neurologic, interferes with central nervous system (CNS) control of the neuromuscular system.¹ The differential is still quite broad and includes metabolic derangements (eg, uremia, electrolyte disturbances, hypercarbia, and thyroid dysfunction), medication toxicity from olanzapine or duloxetine, and vascular processes (eg, CNS vasculitis). Infectious etiologies, both within the CNS and systemically, can cause encephalopathy, as can autoimmune processes, such as immune-mediated encephalitis. Finally, primary neurologic conditions such as myoclonic epilepsy can be considered. Given the patient’s medical history, serotonin syndrome must be considered.

►Dr. Reese: Given the concern for serotonin syndrome, the admitting medical team discontinued the patient’s duloxetine. Dr. Weller, what is the pathophysiology of serotonin syndrome, and how is it diagnosed?

►Dr. Weller: Serotonin is ubiquitous throughout the body and brain. Serotonin syndrome is caused by excess endogenous or exogenous serotonin, and this is usually caused by a variety of medications. The symptoms range from tachycardia, agitation, and diaphoresis to sustained clonus, hyperthermia, and shock.^2,3 The extent of serotonin syndrome is typically thought to reflect the degree of serotonergic activity.⁴

Serotonin syndrome is a clinical diagnosis. While there are no tests that can confirm the diagnosis, the Hunter criteria can be used to assist with making the diagnosis.⁵ Per the Hunter criteria, a patient can be diagnosed with serotonin syndrome if they have taken a serotonergic agent and have at least 1 of the following: spontaneous clonus, inducible or ocular clonus with agitation or diaphoresis, tremor and hyperreflexia, or hypertonia with fever and clonus. This patient had taken duloxetine and had inducible clonus and diaphoresis, thus suggesting a diagnosis of serotonin syndrome.

►Dr. Reese: Aside from selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), are there other medications that we typically prescribe that can cause serotonin syndrome?

►Dr. Weller: In addition to SSRIs and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), other commonly prescribed medications that can cause serotonin syndrome are 5-HT3 antagonists (eg, ondansetron), 5-HT agonists (eg, triptans), and opioids (eg, fentanyl and tramadol). There are also case reports of atypical antipsychotics (eg, olanzapine) causing serotonin syndrome because of their antagonism of the 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors.² Additionally, linezolid is commonly overlooked as a cause of serotonin syndrome given its action as a monoamine oxidase inhibitor.⁴ In this patient, it would be prudent to discontinue olanzapine and duloxetine.

►Dr. Reese: Duloxetine, olanzapine, and buprenorphine/naloxone were discontinuedgiven concern for serotonin syndrome. Although there are not strong data that buprenorphine/ naloxone can cause serotonin syndrome, the team discontinued the medication in case it might be contributing to the patient’s encephalopathy, while closely monitoring the patient for withdrawal. There was a rapid improvement in the patient’s symptoms over the 24 hours after discontinuation of the 3 medications.

As part of the initial workup, the patient received a computed tomography (CT) scan of his chest to follow up pulmonary nodules identified 16 months prior. The CT scan showed interval growth of the pulmonary nodules in the right lower lobe to 2 cm with extension into the major fissure, which was concerning for malignancy. Plans were made for an outpatient positron emission tomography (PET) scan after hospital discharge.

Dr. Schlechter and Dr. Rangachari, what factors can help us determine whether or not further workup of a malignancy should occur before discharge or can be deferred to the outpatient setting?

►Benjamin Schlechter, MD, Instructor in Medicine, BIDMC; and Deepa Rangachari, MD, Assistant Professor of Medicine, BIDMC: Key considerations in this domain include rapidity of growth and any threat to critical end-organ function (ie, brain, heart, lungs, kidney, and liver). If the malignancy is bulky and/or rapidly progressing to the point that the patient has significant symptoms burden and/or end-organ dysfunction, then initiating the evaluation as an inpatient may be necessary. For suspected intrathoracic malignancies, considering whether this may be a high-grade process (ie, small cell lung cancer) is often a vital branch point. Key considerations in this regard are the following: Is it a bulky central tumor? Is there evidence of widespread metastatic disease, an obstructing mass, and/or tumor lysis? One final and critical aspect to consider is whether there are any patient- specific barriers to timely and reliable outpatient follow-up. If there is no evidence of rapid progression, bulky disease with threatened end-organ involvement, and/or issues with timely and reliable follow-up, then outpatient evaluation is often the best approach to ensure a comprehensive and well-coordinated effort on the patient’s behalf.

►Dr. Reese: Buprenorphine/naloxone was restarted without return of the symptoms. The patient was discharged home with an outpatient PET scan scheduled the following week. Unfortunately, the patient was unable to keep this appointment. Three weeks after hospital discharge, the patient presented again to the emergency department with gradually worsening altered mental status, confusion, visual hallucinations, and myoclonic jerking of the arms and legs. Medication adherence was confirmed by the patient’s wife, resulting in a low concern for serotonin syndrome. Physical examination revealed confusion, dysarthria, diffuse, arrhythmic, myoclonic jerking in all extremities, asterixis in the upper extremities, and hyperreflexia.

A CT scan of the brain did not reveal an intracranial process. A spot electroencephalograph (EEG) and magnetic resonance image (MRI) of the brain were obtained. Dr. Weller, what is the utility of spot EEG vs 24-hour EEG? When might we choose one over the other?

►Dr. Weller: If a patient is persistently altered, then a spot EEG would be sufficient to capture a seizure if that is what is causing the patient’s altered mental status. However, if the patient’s mental status is waxing and waning, then that may warrant a 24-hour EEG because the patient may need to be monitored for longer periods to capture an event that is causing intermittent alterations in mental status.6 Additionally, patients who are acutely ill may require long-term monitoring for the purpose of treatment and outcome management.

►Dr. Reese: The spot EEG showed nearly continuous generalized slowing indicative of a diffuse encephalopathy. The MRI of the brain showed scattered, nonspecific periventricular T2 hyperintense foci, suggestive of advanced chronic microvascular ischemic changes.

A PET CT was obtained and revealed mildly fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG)-avid, enlarging nodules within the right lower lobe, which was suspicious for malignancy. There were no other areas of FDG avidity on the PET scan. Valproic acid was initiated for treatment of myoclonus with transition to clonazepam when no improvement was seen. After starting clonazepam, the patient’s condition stabilized.

Dr. Weller, given the additional history, how has your differential diagnosis changed?

►Dr. Weller: Given the patient’s laboratory findings, we can be quite sure that there is not a contributing metabolic process. The findings suggestive of metastatic cancer, along with the profound neurologic changes, are most concerning for a paraneoplastic syndrome. I would suggest biopsy and consideration of a lumbar puncture. One can also send serum markers, including a paraneoplastic antibody panel.

►Dr. Reese: Biopsy of the mass in his right lower lobe revealed squamous cell lung cancer. Dr. Schlechter and Dr. Rangachari, do you have a framework for the different forms of lung cancer?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: The 2 broad categories of lung cancer are small cell and non-small cell (NSCLC). Small cell lung cancer has a tight association with tobacco exposure and is often clinically defined by rapid, bulky progression (ie, weeks to months).^7,8 NSCLCs are also commonly seen in those with tobacco exposure, though not always. The main subgroups in this category are adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. These cancers often evolve at a slower pace (ie, months to years).⁸ While small cell lung cancers are highgrade tumors and exquisitely sensitive to chemotherapy and radiation, NSCLCs tend to be less responsive to such therapies. The staging evaluation for either entity is the same and consists of defining localized vs metastatic disease.

►Dr. Reese: Because this patient had an MRI and PET scan that were both negative for metastatic disease, can we assume that this patient had stage I NSCLC?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: Not necessarily. While PET and MRI brain are exceptionally helpful in detecting distant metastases, they may over- or underestimate intrathoracic lymph node involvement by as much as 20%.⁹ As such, dedicated lymph node staging—either via bronchoscopy (endobronchial ultrasound) or surgically (mediastinoscopy) is indicated as lymph node involvement can significantly alter the stage, prognosis, and optimal therapeutic approach.^10,11

►Dr. Reese: After this diagnosis was made, the teams caring for this patient attributed his altered mental status to a paraneoplastic syndrome. What is a paraneoplastic syndrome, and how does a paraneoplastic syndrome from malignancy present? Does its presence worsen a patient’s prognosis?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: A paraneoplastic syndrome is defined by an immunologic response to the cancer that ends up erroneously targeting self-antigens. Paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with a broad array of clinical findings—from endocrinopathy to encephalopathy—and certain neoplasms are more commonly associated with these syndromes than others (eg, small cell lung cancer and thymoma). Further, severity and onset of a paraneoplastic syndrome does not correlate with the burden of visible disease—and the syndrome may predate the cancer diagnosis by months to years.¹¹ While treatment of the cancer affords the best hope of resolving the paraneoplastic syndrome, the cancer and the paraneoplastic process may have a discordant trajectory, with the paraneoplastic syndrome persisting even after the cancer is maximally treated. Although one might assume that paraneoplastic syndromes portend worse outcomes, in some cases, a presentation with the paraneoplastic syndrome may afford sooner detection of an otherwise occult/asymptomatic malignancy.

►Dr. Reese: The following week, the serum paraneoplastic antibody panel that tested for anti-Yo antibody, anti-Ri antibody,and anti-Hu antibody came back negative. Dr. Weller, what does this mean? Since we have yet to obtain a lumbar puncture, might his symptoms still be caused by a paraneoplastic syndrome?

►Dr. Weller: The negative serum test just means that he does not have antibodies to those 3 antibodies. There are now over 30 different paraneoplastic antibodies that have been discovered, and there are always more that are being discovered. So this negative test result does not exclude a paraneoplastic syndrome in the appropriate clinical context.12 Furthermore, the sensitivity and specificity for certain antibodies are different based upon source fluid, and cerebrospinal fluid testing would provide more diagnostic clarity. A negative test for paraneoplastic syndrome, by itself, would similarly not exclude a paraneoplastic syndrome. Often, empiric treatment is the best diagnostic option for paraneoplastic and autoimmune encephalopathies.

►Dr. Reese: The following week, the patient was discharged to rehabilitation with clonazepam for his symptoms and a scheduled follow-up. Given the patient’s frailty and medical comorbidities, thoracic surgery recommended consultation with radiation oncology. Dr. Schlechter and Dr. Rangachari, when do we decide to use radiation vs chemotherapy for someone with lung cancer?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: Patients with early stage, nonmetastatic NSCLC may not always be candidates for surgical resection on the basis of pulmonary function, other medical comorbidities (as in this case), anatomic considerations, and/or patient preference. In these cases, if there is lung-limited disease without lymph node involvement (ie, stage I/II NSCLC) and the patient is not felt to be an operative candidate, then alternatives to surgery include either radiation or ablation.13,14 As we care for an aging and comorbid population, evolving evidence suggests that well-selected patients with early stage disease undergoing these nonoperative approaches have roughly equivalent outcomes to those undergoing conventional surgical resection.13 In such cases, multidisciplinary consultation with a team having dedicated expertise in these various operative and nonoperative modalities is essential.

►Dr. Reese: The patient followed up with radiation oncology for consideration of radiation treatment, but his simulation CT scan showed some ground-glass opacity that were concerning for inflammation vs infection. The patient’s case was discussed at the multidisciplinary tumor board, and it was determined to treat him with antibiotics for a possible pneumonia before proceeding with radiation therapy. After he completed antibiotic treatment, he underwent 10 fractions of radiation treatment, which he tolerated well.

►Zachary Reese, MD, Chief Medical Resident, VABHS and Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center (BIDMC):Dr. Weller, the differential diagnosis for altered mental status is quite broad. How does the presence of clonus change or focus your approach to altered mental status?

►Jason Weller, MD, Instructor of Neurology, Boston Medical Center (BMC) and VABHS:The presence of clonus does not significantly narrow the differential. It does, however, suggest a central component to the patient’s altered mental status. Specifically, it implies that the underlying process, whether systemic or neurologic, interferes with central nervous system (CNS) control of the neuromuscular system.¹ The differential is still quite broad and includes metabolic derangements (eg, uremia, electrolyte disturbances, hypercarbia, and thyroid dysfunction), medication toxicity from olanzapine or duloxetine, and vascular processes (eg, CNS vasculitis). Infectious etiologies, both within the CNS and systemically, can cause encephalopathy, as can autoimmune processes, such as immune-mediated encephalitis. Finally, primary neurologic conditions such as myoclonic epilepsy can be considered. Given the patient’s medical history, serotonin syndrome must be considered.

►Dr. Reese: Given the concern for serotonin syndrome, the admitting medical team discontinued the patient’s duloxetine. Dr. Weller, what is the pathophysiology of serotonin syndrome, and how is it diagnosed?

►Dr. Weller: Serotonin is ubiquitous throughout the body and brain. Serotonin syndrome is caused by excess endogenous or exogenous serotonin, and this is usually caused by a variety of medications. The symptoms range from tachycardia, agitation, and diaphoresis to sustained clonus, hyperthermia, and shock.^2,3 The extent of serotonin syndrome is typically thought to reflect the degree of serotonergic activity.⁴

Serotonin syndrome is a clinical diagnosis. While there are no tests that can confirm the diagnosis, the Hunter criteria can be used to assist with making the diagnosis.⁵ Per the Hunter criteria, a patient can be diagnosed with serotonin syndrome if they have taken a serotonergic agent and have at least 1 of the following: spontaneous clonus, inducible or ocular clonus with agitation or diaphoresis, tremor and hyperreflexia, or hypertonia with fever and clonus. This patient had taken duloxetine and had inducible clonus and diaphoresis, thus suggesting a diagnosis of serotonin syndrome.

►Dr. Reese: Aside from selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), are there other medications that we typically prescribe that can cause serotonin syndrome?

►Dr. Weller: In addition to SSRIs and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), other commonly prescribed medications that can cause serotonin syndrome are 5-HT3 antagonists (eg, ondansetron), 5-HT agonists (eg, triptans), and opioids (eg, fentanyl and tramadol). There are also case reports of atypical antipsychotics (eg, olanzapine) causing serotonin syndrome because of their antagonism of the 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors.² Additionally, linezolid is commonly overlooked as a cause of serotonin syndrome given its action as a monoamine oxidase inhibitor.⁴ In this patient, it would be prudent to discontinue olanzapine and duloxetine.

►Dr. Reese: Duloxetine, olanzapine, and buprenorphine/naloxone were discontinuedgiven concern for serotonin syndrome. Although there are not strong data that buprenorphine/ naloxone can cause serotonin syndrome, the team discontinued the medication in case it might be contributing to the patient’s encephalopathy, while closely monitoring the patient for withdrawal. There was a rapid improvement in the patient’s symptoms over the 24 hours after discontinuation of the 3 medications.

As part of the initial workup, the patient received a computed tomography (CT) scan of his chest to follow up pulmonary nodules identified 16 months prior. The CT scan showed interval growth of the pulmonary nodules in the right lower lobe to 2 cm with extension into the major fissure, which was concerning for malignancy. Plans were made for an outpatient positron emission tomography (PET) scan after hospital discharge.

Dr. Schlechter and Dr. Rangachari, what factors can help us determine whether or not further workup of a malignancy should occur before discharge or can be deferred to the outpatient setting?

►Benjamin Schlechter, MD, Instructor in Medicine, BIDMC; and Deepa Rangachari, MD, Assistant Professor of Medicine, BIDMC: Key considerations in this domain include rapidity of growth and any threat to critical end-organ function (ie, brain, heart, lungs, kidney, and liver). If the malignancy is bulky and/or rapidly progressing to the point that the patient has significant symptoms burden and/or end-organ dysfunction, then initiating the evaluation as an inpatient may be necessary. For suspected intrathoracic malignancies, considering whether this may be a high-grade process (ie, small cell lung cancer) is often a vital branch point. Key considerations in this regard are the following: Is it a bulky central tumor? Is there evidence of widespread metastatic disease, an obstructing mass, and/or tumor lysis? One final and critical aspect to consider is whether there are any patient- specific barriers to timely and reliable outpatient follow-up. If there is no evidence of rapid progression, bulky disease with threatened end-organ involvement, and/or issues with timely and reliable follow-up, then outpatient evaluation is often the best approach to ensure a comprehensive and well-coordinated effort on the patient’s behalf.

►Dr. Reese: Buprenorphine/naloxone was restarted without return of the symptoms. The patient was discharged home with an outpatient PET scan scheduled the following week. Unfortunately, the patient was unable to keep this appointment. Three weeks after hospital discharge, the patient presented again to the emergency department with gradually worsening altered mental status, confusion, visual hallucinations, and myoclonic jerking of the arms and legs. Medication adherence was confirmed by the patient’s wife, resulting in a low concern for serotonin syndrome. Physical examination revealed confusion, dysarthria, diffuse, arrhythmic, myoclonic jerking in all extremities, asterixis in the upper extremities, and hyperreflexia.

A CT scan of the brain did not reveal an intracranial process. A spot electroencephalograph (EEG) and magnetic resonance image (MRI) of the brain were obtained. Dr. Weller, what is the utility of spot EEG vs 24-hour EEG? When might we choose one over the other?

►Dr. Weller: If a patient is persistently altered, then a spot EEG would be sufficient to capture a seizure if that is what is causing the patient’s altered mental status. However, if the patient’s mental status is waxing and waning, then that may warrant a 24-hour EEG because the patient may need to be monitored for longer periods to capture an event that is causing intermittent alterations in mental status.6 Additionally, patients who are acutely ill may require long-term monitoring for the purpose of treatment and outcome management.

►Dr. Reese: The spot EEG showed nearly continuous generalized slowing indicative of a diffuse encephalopathy. The MRI of the brain showed scattered, nonspecific periventricular T2 hyperintense foci, suggestive of advanced chronic microvascular ischemic changes.

A PET CT was obtained and revealed mildly fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG)-avid, enlarging nodules within the right lower lobe, which was suspicious for malignancy. There were no other areas of FDG avidity on the PET scan. Valproic acid was initiated for treatment of myoclonus with transition to clonazepam when no improvement was seen. After starting clonazepam, the patient’s condition stabilized.

Dr. Weller, given the additional history, how has your differential diagnosis changed?

►Dr. Weller: Given the patient’s laboratory findings, we can be quite sure that there is not a contributing metabolic process. The findings suggestive of metastatic cancer, along with the profound neurologic changes, are most concerning for a paraneoplastic syndrome. I would suggest biopsy and consideration of a lumbar puncture. One can also send serum markers, including a paraneoplastic antibody panel.

►Dr. Reese: Biopsy of the mass in his right lower lobe revealed squamous cell lung cancer. Dr. Schlechter and Dr. Rangachari, do you have a framework for the different forms of lung cancer?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: The 2 broad categories of lung cancer are small cell and non-small cell (NSCLC). Small cell lung cancer has a tight association with tobacco exposure and is often clinically defined by rapid, bulky progression (ie, weeks to months).^7,8 NSCLCs are also commonly seen in those with tobacco exposure, though not always. The main subgroups in this category are adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. These cancers often evolve at a slower pace (ie, months to years).⁸ While small cell lung cancers are highgrade tumors and exquisitely sensitive to chemotherapy and radiation, NSCLCs tend to be less responsive to such therapies. The staging evaluation for either entity is the same and consists of defining localized vs metastatic disease.

►Dr. Reese: Because this patient had an MRI and PET scan that were both negative for metastatic disease, can we assume that this patient had stage I NSCLC?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: Not necessarily. While PET and MRI brain are exceptionally helpful in detecting distant metastases, they may over- or underestimate intrathoracic lymph node involvement by as much as 20%.⁹ As such, dedicated lymph node staging—either via bronchoscopy (endobronchial ultrasound) or surgically (mediastinoscopy) is indicated as lymph node involvement can significantly alter the stage, prognosis, and optimal therapeutic approach.^10,11

►Dr. Reese: After this diagnosis was made, the teams caring for this patient attributed his altered mental status to a paraneoplastic syndrome. What is a paraneoplastic syndrome, and how does a paraneoplastic syndrome from malignancy present? Does its presence worsen a patient’s prognosis?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: A paraneoplastic syndrome is defined by an immunologic response to the cancer that ends up erroneously targeting self-antigens. Paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with a broad array of clinical findings—from endocrinopathy to encephalopathy—and certain neoplasms are more commonly associated with these syndromes than others (eg, small cell lung cancer and thymoma). Further, severity and onset of a paraneoplastic syndrome does not correlate with the burden of visible disease—and the syndrome may predate the cancer diagnosis by months to years.¹¹ While treatment of the cancer affords the best hope of resolving the paraneoplastic syndrome, the cancer and the paraneoplastic process may have a discordant trajectory, with the paraneoplastic syndrome persisting even after the cancer is maximally treated. Although one might assume that paraneoplastic syndromes portend worse outcomes, in some cases, a presentation with the paraneoplastic syndrome may afford sooner detection of an otherwise occult/asymptomatic malignancy.

►Dr. Reese: The following week, the serum paraneoplastic antibody panel that tested for anti-Yo antibody, anti-Ri antibody,and anti-Hu antibody came back negative. Dr. Weller, what does this mean? Since we have yet to obtain a lumbar puncture, might his symptoms still be caused by a paraneoplastic syndrome?

►Dr. Weller: The negative serum test just means that he does not have antibodies to those 3 antibodies. There are now over 30 different paraneoplastic antibodies that have been discovered, and there are always more that are being discovered. So this negative test result does not exclude a paraneoplastic syndrome in the appropriate clinical context.12 Furthermore, the sensitivity and specificity for certain antibodies are different based upon source fluid, and cerebrospinal fluid testing would provide more diagnostic clarity. A negative test for paraneoplastic syndrome, by itself, would similarly not exclude a paraneoplastic syndrome. Often, empiric treatment is the best diagnostic option for paraneoplastic and autoimmune encephalopathies.

►Dr. Reese: The following week, the patient was discharged to rehabilitation with clonazepam for his symptoms and a scheduled follow-up. Given the patient’s frailty and medical comorbidities, thoracic surgery recommended consultation with radiation oncology. Dr. Schlechter and Dr. Rangachari, when do we decide to use radiation vs chemotherapy for someone with lung cancer?

►Dr. Schlechter/Dr. Rangachari: Patients with early stage, nonmetastatic NSCLC may not always be candidates for surgical resection on the basis of pulmonary function, other medical comorbidities (as in this case), anatomic considerations, and/or patient preference. In these cases, if there is lung-limited disease without lymph node involvement (ie, stage I/II NSCLC) and the patient is not felt to be an operative candidate, then alternatives to surgery include either radiation or ablation.13,14 As we care for an aging and comorbid population, evolving evidence suggests that well-selected patients with early stage disease undergoing these nonoperative approaches have roughly equivalent outcomes to those undergoing conventional surgical resection.13 In such cases, multidisciplinary consultation with a team having dedicated expertise in these various operative and nonoperative modalities is essential.

►Dr. Reese: The patient followed up with radiation oncology for consideration of radiation treatment, but his simulation CT scan showed some ground-glass opacity that were concerning for inflammation vs infection. The patient’s case was discussed at the multidisciplinary tumor board, and it was determined to treat him with antibiotics for a possible pneumonia before proceeding with radiation therapy. After he completed antibiotic treatment, he underwent 10 fractions of radiation treatment, which he tolerated well.