Mixed Topics

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ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

A 72-year-old man with well-controlled hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is scheduled for right total hip arthroplasty (THA) due to severe arthritis. He will be admitted to the hospital overnight, and his orthopedic surgeon anticipates 2 to 3 days of inpatient recovery time. In addition to medical management of the patient’s comorbid conditions, the surgeon asks if you have any insight regarding VTE prophylaxis for this patient. Specifically, do you think aspirin is equal to LMWH for VTE prophylaxis?

All adults undergoing major orthopedic surgery are considered to be at high risk for postoperative VTE development, with those having lower-limb procedures at highest risk.² Of the more than 2.2 million THAs and total knee arthroplasties (TKAs) performed in the United States between 2012 and 2020, 55% were primary TKAs and 39% primary THAs.³ The American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) estimated a baseline 35-day risk for VTE of 4.3% in patients undergoing major orthopedic surgery.⁴ The highest VTE risk occurs during the first 7 to 14 days post surgery (1.8% for symptomatic deep vein thrombosis [DVT] and 1% for pulmonary embolism [PE]), with a slightly lower risk during the subsequent 15 to 35 days (1% for symptomatic DVT and 0.5% for PE).⁴

Aspirin’s low cost, availability, and ease of administration make it an attractive choice for VTE prevention in patients post THA and TKA surgery. The Pulmonary Embolism Prevention (PEP) trial evaluated 13,356 patients undergoing hip fracture repair and 4088 patients undergoing arthroplasty and found aspirin to be safe and effective in prevention of VTEs compared with placebo. The investigators concluded that “there is now good evidence for considering aspirin routinely in a wide range of surgical and medical groups at high risk of venous thromboembolism.”⁵ The PEP study, along with others, led to the emergence of aspirin monotherapy for VTE prophylaxis.

Current guidelines for perioperative VTE prophylaxis are based on American Society of Hematology (ASH) and ACCP recommendations. For patients undergoing THA or TKA, ASH suggests using aspirin or anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis; when anticoagulants are used, they suggest using a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) over LMWH.⁶ The ASH guidelines are conditional recommendations based on very low certainty of effects, and the ASH panel recognized the need for further investigation with large, high-quality clinical trials.

The ACCP guidelines are clearer in recommending VTE prophylaxis vs no prophylaxis for major orthopedic surgeries and recommend the use of LMWH over other agents, including aspirin, DOACs, warfarin, and intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) devices.⁴

Although prophylaxis is widely recommended to mitigate the elevated risk for VTE among patients undergoing orthopedic surgery, aspirin as monotherapy remains controversial.⁷ Many orthopedic surgeons prescribe aspirin as a sole VTE prophylaxis agent; however, this practice is not well supported by data from large, well-conducted, randomized trials or inferiority trials.²

STUDY SUMMARY

Aspirin did not meet the noninferiority criterion for postoperative VTE

The CRISTAL trial compared the use of aspirin vs LMWH (enoxaparin) for VTE prophylaxis in patients ages 18 years or older undergoing primary THA or TKA for osteoarthritis.¹ This Australian study used a cluster-randomized, crossover, registry-nested, noninferiority trial design. Of note, in Australia, aspirin is formulated in 100-mg tablets, equivalent to the standard 81-mg low-dose tablet in the United States.

Continue to: Patients taking prescribed antiplatelet...

Patients taking prescribed antiplatelet medication for preexisting conditions (~20% of patients in each group) were allowed to continue antiplatelet therapy during the trial. Patients were excluded if they were receiving an anticoagulant prior to their procedure or had a medical contraindication to aspirin or enoxaparin.

Thirty-one hospital sites were randomly assigned a treatment protocol using either aspirin or enoxaparin. Once target patient enrollment was met with the initial assigned medication, the site switched to the second/other agent. This resulted in 5675 patients in the aspirin group and 4036 in the enoxaparin group enrolled between April 2019 and ­December 2020, with final follow-up in ­August 2021; of these, 259 in the aspirin group and 249 in the enoxaparin group were lost to follow-up, opted out, or died.

Although this study was designed as a noninferiority trial, analysis showed enoxaparin to be significantly superior to aspirin for postoperative VTE prophylaxis.

The aspirin group was given 100 mg PO daily and the enoxaparin group was given 40 mg SC daily (20 mg daily for patients weighing < 50 kg or with an estimated glomerular filtration rate < 30 mL/min/1.73 m²) for 35 days after THA and 14 days after TKA. Both treatment groups received IPC calf devices intraoperatively and postoperatively, and mobilization was offered on postoperative Day 0 or 1.

The primary outcome—development of symptomatic VTE within 90 days of the procedure—occurred in 187 (3.5%) patients in the aspirin group and 69 (1.8%) patients in the enoxaparin group (estimated difference = 1.97%; 95% CI, 0.54%-3.41%). This did not meet the noninferiority criterion for aspirin, based on an estimated assumed rate of 2% and a noninferiority margin of 1%, and in fact was statistically superior for enoxaparin (P = .007). There were no significant differences between the 2 groups in major bleeding or death within 90 days.¹

WHAT’S NEW

Enoxaparin was significantly superior to aspirin for VTE prophylaxis

Although this study was designed as a noninferiority trial, analysis showed enoxaparin to be significantly superior for postoperative VTE prophylaxis compared with aspirin.

Continue to: CAVEATS

 

 

CAVEATS

Study aspirin dosing differed from US standard

This study showed significantly lower rates of symptomatic VTE in the enoxaparin group compared with the aspirin group; however, the majority of this difference was driven by rates of below-the-knee DVTs, which are clinically less relevant.⁸ Also, this trial used a 100-mg aspirin formulation, which is not available in the United States.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Aspirin is far cheaper and administered orally

Aspirin is significantly cheaper than enoxaparin, costing about $0.13 per dose (~$4 for 30 tablets at the 81-mg dose) vs roughly $9 per 40 mg/0.4 mL dose for enoxaparin.⁹ However, a cost-effectiveness analysis may be useful to determine (for example) whether the higher cost of enoxaparin may be offset by fewer DVTs and other sequelae. Lastly, LMWH is an injection, which some patients may refuse.

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

A 72-year-old man with well-controlled hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is scheduled for right total hip arthroplasty (THA) due to severe arthritis. He will be admitted to the hospital overnight, and his orthopedic surgeon anticipates 2 to 3 days of inpatient recovery time. In addition to medical management of the patient’s comorbid conditions, the surgeon asks if you have any insight regarding VTE prophylaxis for this patient. Specifically, do you think aspirin is equal to LMWH for VTE prophylaxis?

All adults undergoing major orthopedic surgery are considered to be at high risk for postoperative VTE development, with those having lower-limb procedures at highest risk.² Of the more than 2.2 million THAs and total knee arthroplasties (TKAs) performed in the United States between 2012 and 2020, 55% were primary TKAs and 39% primary THAs.³ The American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) estimated a baseline 35-day risk for VTE of 4.3% in patients undergoing major orthopedic surgery.⁴ The highest VTE risk occurs during the first 7 to 14 days post surgery (1.8% for symptomatic deep vein thrombosis [DVT] and 1% for pulmonary embolism [PE]), with a slightly lower risk during the subsequent 15 to 35 days (1% for symptomatic DVT and 0.5% for PE).⁴

Aspirin’s low cost, availability, and ease of administration make it an attractive choice for VTE prevention in patients post THA and TKA surgery. The Pulmonary Embolism Prevention (PEP) trial evaluated 13,356 patients undergoing hip fracture repair and 4088 patients undergoing arthroplasty and found aspirin to be safe and effective in prevention of VTEs compared with placebo. The investigators concluded that “there is now good evidence for considering aspirin routinely in a wide range of surgical and medical groups at high risk of venous thromboembolism.”⁵ The PEP study, along with others, led to the emergence of aspirin monotherapy for VTE prophylaxis.

Current guidelines for perioperative VTE prophylaxis are based on American Society of Hematology (ASH) and ACCP recommendations. For patients undergoing THA or TKA, ASH suggests using aspirin or anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis; when anticoagulants are used, they suggest using a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) over LMWH.⁶ The ASH guidelines are conditional recommendations based on very low certainty of effects, and the ASH panel recognized the need for further investigation with large, high-quality clinical trials.

The ACCP guidelines are clearer in recommending VTE prophylaxis vs no prophylaxis for major orthopedic surgeries and recommend the use of LMWH over other agents, including aspirin, DOACs, warfarin, and intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) devices.⁴

Although prophylaxis is widely recommended to mitigate the elevated risk for VTE among patients undergoing orthopedic surgery, aspirin as monotherapy remains controversial.⁷ Many orthopedic surgeons prescribe aspirin as a sole VTE prophylaxis agent; however, this practice is not well supported by data from large, well-conducted, randomized trials or inferiority trials.²

STUDY SUMMARY

Aspirin did not meet the noninferiority criterion for postoperative VTE

The CRISTAL trial compared the use of aspirin vs LMWH (enoxaparin) for VTE prophylaxis in patients ages 18 years or older undergoing primary THA or TKA for osteoarthritis.¹ This Australian study used a cluster-randomized, crossover, registry-nested, noninferiority trial design. Of note, in Australia, aspirin is formulated in 100-mg tablets, equivalent to the standard 81-mg low-dose tablet in the United States.

Continue to: Patients taking prescribed antiplatelet...

Patients taking prescribed antiplatelet medication for preexisting conditions (~20% of patients in each group) were allowed to continue antiplatelet therapy during the trial. Patients were excluded if they were receiving an anticoagulant prior to their procedure or had a medical contraindication to aspirin or enoxaparin.

Thirty-one hospital sites were randomly assigned a treatment protocol using either aspirin or enoxaparin. Once target patient enrollment was met with the initial assigned medication, the site switched to the second/other agent. This resulted in 5675 patients in the aspirin group and 4036 in the enoxaparin group enrolled between April 2019 and ­December 2020, with final follow-up in ­August 2021; of these, 259 in the aspirin group and 249 in the enoxaparin group were lost to follow-up, opted out, or died.

Although this study was designed as a noninferiority trial, analysis showed enoxaparin to be significantly superior to aspirin for postoperative VTE prophylaxis.

The aspirin group was given 100 mg PO daily and the enoxaparin group was given 40 mg SC daily (20 mg daily for patients weighing < 50 kg or with an estimated glomerular filtration rate < 30 mL/min/1.73 m²) for 35 days after THA and 14 days after TKA. Both treatment groups received IPC calf devices intraoperatively and postoperatively, and mobilization was offered on postoperative Day 0 or 1.

The primary outcome—development of symptomatic VTE within 90 days of the procedure—occurred in 187 (3.5%) patients in the aspirin group and 69 (1.8%) patients in the enoxaparin group (estimated difference = 1.97%; 95% CI, 0.54%-3.41%). This did not meet the noninferiority criterion for aspirin, based on an estimated assumed rate of 2% and a noninferiority margin of 1%, and in fact was statistically superior for enoxaparin (P = .007). There were no significant differences between the 2 groups in major bleeding or death within 90 days.¹

WHAT’S NEW

Enoxaparin was significantly superior to aspirin for VTE prophylaxis

Although this study was designed as a noninferiority trial, analysis showed enoxaparin to be significantly superior for postoperative VTE prophylaxis compared with aspirin.

Continue to: CAVEATS

 

 

CAVEATS

Study aspirin dosing differed from US standard

This study showed significantly lower rates of symptomatic VTE in the enoxaparin group compared with the aspirin group; however, the majority of this difference was driven by rates of below-the-knee DVTs, which are clinically less relevant.⁸ Also, this trial used a 100-mg aspirin formulation, which is not available in the United States.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Aspirin is far cheaper and administered orally

Aspirin is significantly cheaper than enoxaparin, costing about $0.13 per dose (~$4 for 30 tablets at the 81-mg dose) vs roughly $9 per 40 mg/0.4 mL dose for enoxaparin.⁹ However, a cost-effectiveness analysis may be useful to determine (for example) whether the higher cost of enoxaparin may be offset by fewer DVTs and other sequelae. Lastly, LMWH is an injection, which some patients may refuse.

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

A 72-year-old man with well-controlled hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is scheduled for right total hip arthroplasty (THA) due to severe arthritis. He will be admitted to the hospital overnight, and his orthopedic surgeon anticipates 2 to 3 days of inpatient recovery time. In addition to medical management of the patient’s comorbid conditions, the surgeon asks if you have any insight regarding VTE prophylaxis for this patient. Specifically, do you think aspirin is equal to LMWH for VTE prophylaxis?

All adults undergoing major orthopedic surgery are considered to be at high risk for postoperative VTE development, with those having lower-limb procedures at highest risk.² Of the more than 2.2 million THAs and total knee arthroplasties (TKAs) performed in the United States between 2012 and 2020, 55% were primary TKAs and 39% primary THAs.³ The American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) estimated a baseline 35-day risk for VTE of 4.3% in patients undergoing major orthopedic surgery.⁴ The highest VTE risk occurs during the first 7 to 14 days post surgery (1.8% for symptomatic deep vein thrombosis [DVT] and 1% for pulmonary embolism [PE]), with a slightly lower risk during the subsequent 15 to 35 days (1% for symptomatic DVT and 0.5% for PE).⁴

Aspirin’s low cost, availability, and ease of administration make it an attractive choice for VTE prevention in patients post THA and TKA surgery. The Pulmonary Embolism Prevention (PEP) trial evaluated 13,356 patients undergoing hip fracture repair and 4088 patients undergoing arthroplasty and found aspirin to be safe and effective in prevention of VTEs compared with placebo. The investigators concluded that “there is now good evidence for considering aspirin routinely in a wide range of surgical and medical groups at high risk of venous thromboembolism.”⁵ The PEP study, along with others, led to the emergence of aspirin monotherapy for VTE prophylaxis.

Current guidelines for perioperative VTE prophylaxis are based on American Society of Hematology (ASH) and ACCP recommendations. For patients undergoing THA or TKA, ASH suggests using aspirin or anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis; when anticoagulants are used, they suggest using a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) over LMWH.⁶ The ASH guidelines are conditional recommendations based on very low certainty of effects, and the ASH panel recognized the need for further investigation with large, high-quality clinical trials.

The ACCP guidelines are clearer in recommending VTE prophylaxis vs no prophylaxis for major orthopedic surgeries and recommend the use of LMWH over other agents, including aspirin, DOACs, warfarin, and intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) devices.⁴

Although prophylaxis is widely recommended to mitigate the elevated risk for VTE among patients undergoing orthopedic surgery, aspirin as monotherapy remains controversial.⁷ Many orthopedic surgeons prescribe aspirin as a sole VTE prophylaxis agent; however, this practice is not well supported by data from large, well-conducted, randomized trials or inferiority trials.²

STUDY SUMMARY

Aspirin did not meet the noninferiority criterion for postoperative VTE

The CRISTAL trial compared the use of aspirin vs LMWH (enoxaparin) for VTE prophylaxis in patients ages 18 years or older undergoing primary THA or TKA for osteoarthritis.¹ This Australian study used a cluster-randomized, crossover, registry-nested, noninferiority trial design. Of note, in Australia, aspirin is formulated in 100-mg tablets, equivalent to the standard 81-mg low-dose tablet in the United States.

Continue to: Patients taking prescribed antiplatelet...

Patients taking prescribed antiplatelet medication for preexisting conditions (~20% of patients in each group) were allowed to continue antiplatelet therapy during the trial. Patients were excluded if they were receiving an anticoagulant prior to their procedure or had a medical contraindication to aspirin or enoxaparin.

Thirty-one hospital sites were randomly assigned a treatment protocol using either aspirin or enoxaparin. Once target patient enrollment was met with the initial assigned medication, the site switched to the second/other agent. This resulted in 5675 patients in the aspirin group and 4036 in the enoxaparin group enrolled between April 2019 and ­December 2020, with final follow-up in ­August 2021; of these, 259 in the aspirin group and 249 in the enoxaparin group were lost to follow-up, opted out, or died.

Although this study was designed as a noninferiority trial, analysis showed enoxaparin to be significantly superior to aspirin for postoperative VTE prophylaxis.

The aspirin group was given 100 mg PO daily and the enoxaparin group was given 40 mg SC daily (20 mg daily for patients weighing < 50 kg or with an estimated glomerular filtration rate < 30 mL/min/1.73 m²) for 35 days after THA and 14 days after TKA. Both treatment groups received IPC calf devices intraoperatively and postoperatively, and mobilization was offered on postoperative Day 0 or 1.

The primary outcome—development of symptomatic VTE within 90 days of the procedure—occurred in 187 (3.5%) patients in the aspirin group and 69 (1.8%) patients in the enoxaparin group (estimated difference = 1.97%; 95% CI, 0.54%-3.41%). This did not meet the noninferiority criterion for aspirin, based on an estimated assumed rate of 2% and a noninferiority margin of 1%, and in fact was statistically superior for enoxaparin (P = .007). There were no significant differences between the 2 groups in major bleeding or death within 90 days.¹

WHAT’S NEW

Enoxaparin was significantly superior to aspirin for VTE prophylaxis

Although this study was designed as a noninferiority trial, analysis showed enoxaparin to be significantly superior for postoperative VTE prophylaxis compared with aspirin.

Continue to: CAVEATS

 

 

CAVEATS

Study aspirin dosing differed from US standard

This study showed significantly lower rates of symptomatic VTE in the enoxaparin group compared with the aspirin group; however, the majority of this difference was driven by rates of below-the-knee DVTs, which are clinically less relevant.⁸ Also, this trial used a 100-mg aspirin formulation, which is not available in the United States.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Aspirin is far cheaper and administered orally

Aspirin is significantly cheaper than enoxaparin, costing about $0.13 per dose (~$4 for 30 tablets at the 81-mg dose) vs roughly $9 per 40 mg/0.4 mL dose for enoxaparin.⁹ However, a cost-effectiveness analysis may be useful to determine (for example) whether the higher cost of enoxaparin may be offset by fewer DVTs and other sequelae. Lastly, LMWH is an injection, which some patients may refuse.

THE CASE

A 51-year-old Japanese woman presented with fever, sore throat, and dyspnea of less than 1 day’s duration. Although she had developed general fatigue, palpitations, and tremors of the hands 2 months earlier, she had not sought medical care.

Her medical history included Graves disease, which had been diagnosed 13 years earlier. She reported that her only medication was methimazole 10 mg/d. She did not have any family history of endocrinopathies or hematologic diseases.

Physical examination revealed a body temperature of 99.7 °F; heart rate, 130 beats/min; blood pressure, 182/62 mm Hg; respiratory rate, 46 breaths/min; and oxygen saturation, 100% on room air. Pharyngeal erythema was seen. Lung sounds were clear. The patient had tremors in her hands, tenderness of the thyroid gland, and exophthalmos. No leg edema or jugular vein distension was seen.

Laboratory tests indicated hyperthyroidism, with a thyroid-stimulating hormone level < 0.01 µIU/mL (normal range, 0.5-5 µIU/mL); free T3 level, 4.87 pg/mL (normal range, 2.3-4.3 pg/mL); and free T4 level, 2.97 ng/dL (normal range, 0.9-1.7 ng/dL). The patient also had a white blood cell (WBC) count of 1020 cells/µL (normal range, 3500-9000 cells/µL) and neutrophil count of 5 cells/µL (normal range, 1500-6500 cells/µL).

Other blood cell counts were normal, and a chest x-ray did not reveal any abnormal findings. In addition, there was no evidence to suggest hematologic malignancies or congenital neutropenia.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Based on the patient’s low WBC and neutrophil counts, agranulocytosis due to antithyroid drug therapy was suspected; however, this diagnosis would be highly unusual in the context of a 13-year history of therapy. Further history taking revealed that, because of her lack of financial means, unstable living conditions, and lack of understanding of the necessity for medication adherence, the patient had not taken methimazole regularly until 2 months prior to presentation, when she started taking it because of worsening symptoms. She had hesitated to report her social and medication status due to embarrassment.

In consideration of these factors, a diagnosis of exacerbation of hyperthyroidism and agranulocytosis (due to methimazole restart and upper respiratory infection) was made.

Continue to: DISCUSSION

 

 

DISCUSSION

Agranulocytosis is a severe adverse event of antithyroid agents and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In a 26-year study at one clinic, it occurred in approximately 0.4% of patients taking antithyroid agents.¹ The possible mechanisms of agranulocytosis are the direct toxicity of drugs and immune-mediated responses.² Older age, female sex, and some HLA genotypes are reported to be associated with susceptibility to agranulocytosis.²

Although the development of agranulocytosis tends to be dose related, a small dose of antithyroid agent can sometimes cause the condition.^3,4 It usually occurs within the first 3 months of treatment initiation, but occasionally patients develop agranulocytosis after long-term therapy.⁵ Interruption and subsequent resumption of the same antithyroid drug treatment also can be a risk factor for agranulocytosis, as in this case.⁵

Treatment includes drug cessation, administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics if infection is suspected, and granulocyte-­colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) therapy.⁵

Our patient was hospitalized, and methimazole was stopped immediately. Administration of potassium iodide 50 mg/d and G-CSF was started. Meropenem 3 g/d also was administered for neutropenic fever.

The patient’s condition improved, and her WBC count increased to 1640 cells/µL on Day 8 and 10,890 cells/µL on Day 9. G-CSF was stopped on Day 12 and meropenem on Day 13. Bone marrow aspiration was not performed because of improvement in lab values and her overall condition. Although monitoring of WBC count during methimazole therapy is controversial,⁵ we decided to routinely monitor this patient due to the possibility of drug cross-reactivity.

Continue to: Despite repeated explanations...

Despite repeated explanations that it was dangerous for a patient who had developed agranulocytosis to take another antithyroid medication, the patient refused surgical treatment or radioiodine ablation because of her financial situation. (While all Japanese citizens are covered by a national health insurance program, patients ages 6 to 70 years are required to pay approximately 30% of medical and pharmaceutical costs.) On Day 21, potassium iodide was stopped, and propylthiouracil 300 mg/d was administered with careful follow-up. Agranulocytosis did not recur.

Immediate problem solved, but what about the future?

During her hospital stay, the medical team spoke with the patient many times, during which she expressed anxiety about her health conditions and the difficulties that she had experienced in her life. The clinicians acknowledged her concerns and assured the patient of their continuing commitment to her well-being even after discharge. The patient also was advised that she should take her medication as prescribed and that if she had a fever or sore throat, she should stop the medication and seek medical care as soon as possible. The patient accepted the medical team’s advice and expressed hope for the future.

Conversations about medication adherence. In 1 survey, about 60% of patients taking antithyroid drugs were unfamiliar with the symptoms of agranulocytosis.⁶ To deliver safe and effective treatment and detect conditions such as agranulocytosis at an early stage, clinicians must communicate clearly with patients who have hyperthyroidism, providing sufficient explanation and ensuring understanding on the patient’s part.

Interruption and subsequent resumption of the same antithyroid drug treatment also can be a risk factor for agranulocytosis, as in this case.

Patients may be reluctant to provide the details of medication adherence.⁷ Although it is common for patients to need services for socioeconomic issues,⁸ health care professionals sometimes fail to adequately discuss these issues with patients, especially if the patients are marginalized and/or have lower economic status.⁹ Cases such as ours underscore the importance of improving clinicians’ awareness and sensitivity to patients’ socioeconomic challenges.^10,11

Our patient received information about welfare and other government services from a medical social worker during her hospital stay. She also was informed that she could seek assistance from medical social workers in the future if needed.

Continue to: The patient was discharged...

The patient was discharged on Day 28. After discharge, she took propylthiouracil as prescribed (300 mg/d), and her Graves disease was well controlled. Outpatient follow-up visits were performed every 1 or 2 months. No adverse events of propylthiouracil were seen in the ensuing time.

THE TAKEAWAY

Patients with chronic conditions sometimes discontinue medications, and they may not talk about it with their medical team, especially if they have socioeconomic or other difficulties in their lives. Clinicians should consider medication nonadherence and its risk factors when patients with chronic conditions develop unexpected adverse events.

ACKNOWLEDGMENT
We thank Jane Charbonneau, DVM, from Edanz for doing an English-language review of a draft of this manuscript.

CORRESPONDENCE
Takuya Maejima, MD, Department of General Medicine and Primary Care, University of Tsukuba Hospital, 2-1-1 Amakubo, Tsukuba, Ibaraki 305-8576 Japan; t.maejima.2019@gmail.com

THE CASE

A 51-year-old Japanese woman presented with fever, sore throat, and dyspnea of less than 1 day’s duration. Although she had developed general fatigue, palpitations, and tremors of the hands 2 months earlier, she had not sought medical care.

Her medical history included Graves disease, which had been diagnosed 13 years earlier. She reported that her only medication was methimazole 10 mg/d. She did not have any family history of endocrinopathies or hematologic diseases.

Physical examination revealed a body temperature of 99.7 °F; heart rate, 130 beats/min; blood pressure, 182/62 mm Hg; respiratory rate, 46 breaths/min; and oxygen saturation, 100% on room air. Pharyngeal erythema was seen. Lung sounds were clear. The patient had tremors in her hands, tenderness of the thyroid gland, and exophthalmos. No leg edema or jugular vein distension was seen.

Laboratory tests indicated hyperthyroidism, with a thyroid-stimulating hormone level < 0.01 µIU/mL (normal range, 0.5-5 µIU/mL); free T3 level, 4.87 pg/mL (normal range, 2.3-4.3 pg/mL); and free T4 level, 2.97 ng/dL (normal range, 0.9-1.7 ng/dL). The patient also had a white blood cell (WBC) count of 1020 cells/µL (normal range, 3500-9000 cells/µL) and neutrophil count of 5 cells/µL (normal range, 1500-6500 cells/µL).

Other blood cell counts were normal, and a chest x-ray did not reveal any abnormal findings. In addition, there was no evidence to suggest hematologic malignancies or congenital neutropenia.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Based on the patient’s low WBC and neutrophil counts, agranulocytosis due to antithyroid drug therapy was suspected; however, this diagnosis would be highly unusual in the context of a 13-year history of therapy. Further history taking revealed that, because of her lack of financial means, unstable living conditions, and lack of understanding of the necessity for medication adherence, the patient had not taken methimazole regularly until 2 months prior to presentation, when she started taking it because of worsening symptoms. She had hesitated to report her social and medication status due to embarrassment.

In consideration of these factors, a diagnosis of exacerbation of hyperthyroidism and agranulocytosis (due to methimazole restart and upper respiratory infection) was made.

Continue to: DISCUSSION

 

 

DISCUSSION

Agranulocytosis is a severe adverse event of antithyroid agents and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In a 26-year study at one clinic, it occurred in approximately 0.4% of patients taking antithyroid agents.¹ The possible mechanisms of agranulocytosis are the direct toxicity of drugs and immune-mediated responses.² Older age, female sex, and some HLA genotypes are reported to be associated with susceptibility to agranulocytosis.²

Although the development of agranulocytosis tends to be dose related, a small dose of antithyroid agent can sometimes cause the condition.^3,4 It usually occurs within the first 3 months of treatment initiation, but occasionally patients develop agranulocytosis after long-term therapy.⁵ Interruption and subsequent resumption of the same antithyroid drug treatment also can be a risk factor for agranulocytosis, as in this case.⁵

Treatment includes drug cessation, administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics if infection is suspected, and granulocyte-­colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) therapy.⁵

Our patient was hospitalized, and methimazole was stopped immediately. Administration of potassium iodide 50 mg/d and G-CSF was started. Meropenem 3 g/d also was administered for neutropenic fever.

The patient’s condition improved, and her WBC count increased to 1640 cells/µL on Day 8 and 10,890 cells/µL on Day 9. G-CSF was stopped on Day 12 and meropenem on Day 13. Bone marrow aspiration was not performed because of improvement in lab values and her overall condition. Although monitoring of WBC count during methimazole therapy is controversial,⁵ we decided to routinely monitor this patient due to the possibility of drug cross-reactivity.

Continue to: Despite repeated explanations...

Despite repeated explanations that it was dangerous for a patient who had developed agranulocytosis to take another antithyroid medication, the patient refused surgical treatment or radioiodine ablation because of her financial situation. (While all Japanese citizens are covered by a national health insurance program, patients ages 6 to 70 years are required to pay approximately 30% of medical and pharmaceutical costs.) On Day 21, potassium iodide was stopped, and propylthiouracil 300 mg/d was administered with careful follow-up. Agranulocytosis did not recur.

Immediate problem solved, but what about the future?

During her hospital stay, the medical team spoke with the patient many times, during which she expressed anxiety about her health conditions and the difficulties that she had experienced in her life. The clinicians acknowledged her concerns and assured the patient of their continuing commitment to her well-being even after discharge. The patient also was advised that she should take her medication as prescribed and that if she had a fever or sore throat, she should stop the medication and seek medical care as soon as possible. The patient accepted the medical team’s advice and expressed hope for the future.

Conversations about medication adherence. In 1 survey, about 60% of patients taking antithyroid drugs were unfamiliar with the symptoms of agranulocytosis.⁶ To deliver safe and effective treatment and detect conditions such as agranulocytosis at an early stage, clinicians must communicate clearly with patients who have hyperthyroidism, providing sufficient explanation and ensuring understanding on the patient’s part.

Interruption and subsequent resumption of the same antithyroid drug treatment also can be a risk factor for agranulocytosis, as in this case.

Patients may be reluctant to provide the details of medication adherence.⁷ Although it is common for patients to need services for socioeconomic issues,⁸ health care professionals sometimes fail to adequately discuss these issues with patients, especially if the patients are marginalized and/or have lower economic status.⁹ Cases such as ours underscore the importance of improving clinicians’ awareness and sensitivity to patients’ socioeconomic challenges.^10,11

Our patient received information about welfare and other government services from a medical social worker during her hospital stay. She also was informed that she could seek assistance from medical social workers in the future if needed.

Continue to: The patient was discharged...

The patient was discharged on Day 28. After discharge, she took propylthiouracil as prescribed (300 mg/d), and her Graves disease was well controlled. Outpatient follow-up visits were performed every 1 or 2 months. No adverse events of propylthiouracil were seen in the ensuing time.

THE TAKEAWAY

Patients with chronic conditions sometimes discontinue medications, and they may not talk about it with their medical team, especially if they have socioeconomic or other difficulties in their lives. Clinicians should consider medication nonadherence and its risk factors when patients with chronic conditions develop unexpected adverse events.

ACKNOWLEDGMENT
We thank Jane Charbonneau, DVM, from Edanz for doing an English-language review of a draft of this manuscript.

CORRESPONDENCE
Takuya Maejima, MD, Department of General Medicine and Primary Care, University of Tsukuba Hospital, 2-1-1 Amakubo, Tsukuba, Ibaraki 305-8576 Japan; t.maejima.2019@gmail.com

THE CASE

A 51-year-old Japanese woman presented with fever, sore throat, and dyspnea of less than 1 day’s duration. Although she had developed general fatigue, palpitations, and tremors of the hands 2 months earlier, she had not sought medical care.

Her medical history included Graves disease, which had been diagnosed 13 years earlier. She reported that her only medication was methimazole 10 mg/d. She did not have any family history of endocrinopathies or hematologic diseases.

Physical examination revealed a body temperature of 99.7 °F; heart rate, 130 beats/min; blood pressure, 182/62 mm Hg; respiratory rate, 46 breaths/min; and oxygen saturation, 100% on room air. Pharyngeal erythema was seen. Lung sounds were clear. The patient had tremors in her hands, tenderness of the thyroid gland, and exophthalmos. No leg edema or jugular vein distension was seen.

Laboratory tests indicated hyperthyroidism, with a thyroid-stimulating hormone level < 0.01 µIU/mL (normal range, 0.5-5 µIU/mL); free T3 level, 4.87 pg/mL (normal range, 2.3-4.3 pg/mL); and free T4 level, 2.97 ng/dL (normal range, 0.9-1.7 ng/dL). The patient also had a white blood cell (WBC) count of 1020 cells/µL (normal range, 3500-9000 cells/µL) and neutrophil count of 5 cells/µL (normal range, 1500-6500 cells/µL).

Other blood cell counts were normal, and a chest x-ray did not reveal any abnormal findings. In addition, there was no evidence to suggest hematologic malignancies or congenital neutropenia.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Based on the patient’s low WBC and neutrophil counts, agranulocytosis due to antithyroid drug therapy was suspected; however, this diagnosis would be highly unusual in the context of a 13-year history of therapy. Further history taking revealed that, because of her lack of financial means, unstable living conditions, and lack of understanding of the necessity for medication adherence, the patient had not taken methimazole regularly until 2 months prior to presentation, when she started taking it because of worsening symptoms. She had hesitated to report her social and medication status due to embarrassment.

In consideration of these factors, a diagnosis of exacerbation of hyperthyroidism and agranulocytosis (due to methimazole restart and upper respiratory infection) was made.

Continue to: DISCUSSION

 

 

DISCUSSION

Agranulocytosis is a severe adverse event of antithyroid agents and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In a 26-year study at one clinic, it occurred in approximately 0.4% of patients taking antithyroid agents.¹ The possible mechanisms of agranulocytosis are the direct toxicity of drugs and immune-mediated responses.² Older age, female sex, and some HLA genotypes are reported to be associated with susceptibility to agranulocytosis.²

Although the development of agranulocytosis tends to be dose related, a small dose of antithyroid agent can sometimes cause the condition.^3,4 It usually occurs within the first 3 months of treatment initiation, but occasionally patients develop agranulocytosis after long-term therapy.⁵ Interruption and subsequent resumption of the same antithyroid drug treatment also can be a risk factor for agranulocytosis, as in this case.⁵

Treatment includes drug cessation, administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics if infection is suspected, and granulocyte-­colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) therapy.⁵

Our patient was hospitalized, and methimazole was stopped immediately. Administration of potassium iodide 50 mg/d and G-CSF was started. Meropenem 3 g/d also was administered for neutropenic fever.

The patient’s condition improved, and her WBC count increased to 1640 cells/µL on Day 8 and 10,890 cells/µL on Day 9. G-CSF was stopped on Day 12 and meropenem on Day 13. Bone marrow aspiration was not performed because of improvement in lab values and her overall condition. Although monitoring of WBC count during methimazole therapy is controversial,⁵ we decided to routinely monitor this patient due to the possibility of drug cross-reactivity.

Continue to: Despite repeated explanations...

Despite repeated explanations that it was dangerous for a patient who had developed agranulocytosis to take another antithyroid medication, the patient refused surgical treatment or radioiodine ablation because of her financial situation. (While all Japanese citizens are covered by a national health insurance program, patients ages 6 to 70 years are required to pay approximately 30% of medical and pharmaceutical costs.) On Day 21, potassium iodide was stopped, and propylthiouracil 300 mg/d was administered with careful follow-up. Agranulocytosis did not recur.

Immediate problem solved, but what about the future?

During her hospital stay, the medical team spoke with the patient many times, during which she expressed anxiety about her health conditions and the difficulties that she had experienced in her life. The clinicians acknowledged her concerns and assured the patient of their continuing commitment to her well-being even after discharge. The patient also was advised that she should take her medication as prescribed and that if she had a fever or sore throat, she should stop the medication and seek medical care as soon as possible. The patient accepted the medical team’s advice and expressed hope for the future.

Conversations about medication adherence. In 1 survey, about 60% of patients taking antithyroid drugs were unfamiliar with the symptoms of agranulocytosis.⁶ To deliver safe and effective treatment and detect conditions such as agranulocytosis at an early stage, clinicians must communicate clearly with patients who have hyperthyroidism, providing sufficient explanation and ensuring understanding on the patient’s part.

Interruption and subsequent resumption of the same antithyroid drug treatment also can be a risk factor for agranulocytosis, as in this case.

Patients may be reluctant to provide the details of medication adherence.⁷ Although it is common for patients to need services for socioeconomic issues,⁸ health care professionals sometimes fail to adequately discuss these issues with patients, especially if the patients are marginalized and/or have lower economic status.⁹ Cases such as ours underscore the importance of improving clinicians’ awareness and sensitivity to patients’ socioeconomic challenges.^10,11

Our patient received information about welfare and other government services from a medical social worker during her hospital stay. She also was informed that she could seek assistance from medical social workers in the future if needed.

Continue to: The patient was discharged...

The patient was discharged on Day 28. After discharge, she took propylthiouracil as prescribed (300 mg/d), and her Graves disease was well controlled. Outpatient follow-up visits were performed every 1 or 2 months. No adverse events of propylthiouracil were seen in the ensuing time.

THE TAKEAWAY

Patients with chronic conditions sometimes discontinue medications, and they may not talk about it with their medical team, especially if they have socioeconomic or other difficulties in their lives. Clinicians should consider medication nonadherence and its risk factors when patients with chronic conditions develop unexpected adverse events.

ACKNOWLEDGMENT
We thank Jane Charbonneau, DVM, from Edanz for doing an English-language review of a draft of this manuscript.

CORRESPONDENCE
Takuya Maejima, MD, Department of General Medicine and Primary Care, University of Tsukuba Hospital, 2-1-1 Amakubo, Tsukuba, Ibaraki 305-8576 Japan; t.maejima.2019@gmail.com

More than 1.2 million Americans are living with HIV, and more than 30,000 new cases are diagnosed each year. While total incidence has declined since 2016, HIV remains a nationwide epidemic.¹

Medications that prevent HIV acquisition, termed preexposure prophylaxis (PrEP), are an important tool to initiate in the primary care setting to reduce HIV transmission. However, while there are an estimated 1.2 million people eligible for PrEP, only 36% have received PrEP prescriptions.² Several barriers that have impeded its widespread adoption include a lack of clinician knowledge and clinical resources for testing, high medication costs, and stigma around sexual health and intravenous (IV) drug use.

The value of PrEP

PrEP is chemoprophylaxis against the acquisition of HIV infection through the administration of an oral or injectable medication to people at risk for HIV. This practice began in the early 2000s, with the first oral regimen approved in 2012, and since has become an important tool in preventing HIV transmission.

When taken as prescribed, PrEP medications reduce the risk for acquiring HIV through sex by approximately 99% and can reduce the risk for acquiring HIV from injection drug use by approximately 74%.³ The US Preventive Services Task Force issued a Grade “A” recommendation to offer PrEP to people at high risk for HIV acquisition in June 2019 and reaffirmed it in a 2023 update.⁴

PrEP is notably distinct from postexposure prophylaxis (PEP), which is the administration of medication to prevent HIV infection after a possible exposure.

The available regimens

Regimens for PrEP include oral tablets or intramuscular (IM) injections.⁵ There are 3 PrEP regimens approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA): tenofovir disoproxil fumarate/­emtricitabine (Truvada), tenofovir ­alafenamide/emtricitabine (Descovy), and cabotegravir (Apretude).

Incomplete adherence to or abrupt discontinuation of oral PrEP could precipitate a hepatitis B flare.

Truvada is once-daily oral PrEP that was approved in 2012 and is now available in a generic formulation. Notable adverse effects of Truvada include a small negative impact on renal function and small reductions in bone mineral density; these have been noted in individual trials, but in meta-­analyses such differences were not found to be statistically significant.^6-8 The most common adverse effects of Truvada, experienced by up to 6% of patients, are gastrointestinal symptoms, fatigue, headache/dizziness, depression, and insomnia; most symptoms resolve within weeks.

Continue to: Descovy

Descovy is daily oral PrEP that was approved in 2019. Descovy is associated with increases in LDL and triglycerides but has less impact on renal and bone health.⁹ The most common adverse effect of Descovy, experienced by about 5% of patients, is diarrhea, followed by nausea.

Apretude was approved in 2021 and is a 600-mg IM injection given monthly for 2 months, then every 2 months (± 7 days). The advantages of Apretude are frequency and discreteness of dosing and the ability to use in patients with estimated creatinine clearance (eCrCl) > 15 mL/min. The most common adverse effects of Apretude are injection-site reactions, which occur in 30% to 80% of patients but are rarely significant enough to lead to discontinuation (< 2% of patients discontinue use due to injection-site reactions).¹⁰ 

Who should take PrEP?

The latest Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines recommend that all sexually active adults receive information about PrEP.⁵ Indications for PrEP are broad and summarized in the FIGURE.⁵

PrEP is indicated in patients who report sexual or injection drug use behaviors that place them at substantial ongoing risk for HIV exposure. Specific indications include patients with sexual partner(s) with unknown HIV status with whom they have inconsistent or no condom use, a history of bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the past 6 months, an HIV-positive sexual partner, or the sharing of injection drug equipment.

Hepatitis B infection is not a contraindication for PrEP use, but knowledge of infection status is essential. All current oral medications used for PrEP have activity against hepatitis B. Incomplete adherence to or abrupt discontinuation of oral PrEP could precipitate a hepatitis B flare. Hepatitis B surface antigen should be tested at the time of PrEP initiation, although PrEP can begin while testing is in process.

Continue to: How to use PrEP

 

 

How to use PrEP

At PrEP initiation, acute or chronic HIV infection must be excluded with a documented negative HIV antigen/antibody test within 1 week of prescribing PrEP.⁵ The CDC guidelines provide an updated HIV testing algorithm (www.cdc.gov/hiv/pdf/risk/prep/cdc-hiv-prep-guidelines-2021.pdf, p 30-31, Figures 4a and 4b), which considers whether patients have received PrEP recently.

Patients with recent high-risk exposures or symptoms of acute HIV at the time of desired PrEP initiation should have an HIV-1 viral load checked with negative results before PrEP is prescribed. Additional criteria for PrEP include weight > 35 kg; screening for hepatitis B virus infection; screening for drug interactions; and drug-specific eCrCl cutoffs of > 60 mL/min for Truvada, > 30 mL/min for Descovy, and > 15 mL/min for Apretude.⁵

Studies regarding time to medication effectiveness are limited. Pharmacokinetic studies of Truvada demonstrate sufficient drug concentrations should be present in peripheral blood mononuclear cells and rectal tissue within 7 days of initiation of oral dosing and around 20 days in vaginal tissue.

Of note, while expedited partner therapy is used as a harm-reduction strategy to treat the sexual partners of patients diagnosed with certain STIs, PrEP is not recommended to be used in this way.

Ongoing monitoring with PrEP. Once oral PrEP is started, STI risk assessment and HIV testing via 4th generation antibody/antigen­ test should be completed at least every 3 months. PrEP oral prescription refills should be limited to 3 months. For patients receiving IM PrEP (Apretude), HIV testing via viral load and antibody/antigen testing should be done at the time of each injection (every 2 months).⁵

Continue to: With oral PrEP...

With oral PrEP, renal function should be checked every 6 months in patients older than 50 years or those with eCrCl < 90 mL/min at initiation. For patients younger than 50 years with no baseline renal dysfunction, the latest guidelines now recommend monitoring every 12 months instead of 6 months.⁵

For patients on Descovy, a lipid panel is recommended at PrEP initiation and every 12 months. Testing for other STIs can be considered on this schedule, based on clinical assessment. The TABLE⁵ summarizes recommended monitoring for patients taking oral PrEP.

Recommended follow-up provides an opportunity to have frequent contact with a potentially high-risk population, and PrEP should be one part of a comprehensive HIV prevention and risk reduction plan. Many patients at high risk for HIV acquisition may benefit from frequent follow-up to address screening, referral, and treatment of substance use disorders, mental health conditions, and chronic medical conditions (including hepatitis C infection) and provide ongoing preventive health care. 

Special uses of PrEP 

Same-day PrEP. Starting PrEP on the day of the initial appointment may be appropriate based on patient risk factors and barriers to care, such as a high risk for contracting HIV before the subsequent appointment for a prescription of PrEP or an inability to return to the clinic in a timely fashion due to transportation or work constraints, or clinician availability. For these patients, assuming there is a low concern for acute or chronic HIV infection, PrEP can be initiated on the day of the initial visit.⁵

In these cases, point-of-care HIV and creatinine testing with same-day results should be completed. Antigen/antibody fingerstick testing or HIV-1 RNA test are preferred; oral fluid HIV testing should not be used for same-day PrEP due to its lower sensitivity for HIV detection. If same-day testing is unavailable, blood should be drawn at the visit so that HIV and creatinine testing can be completed as soon as possible.

Continue to: In addition to initial laboratory testing...

In addition to initial laboratory testing, clinics offering same-day PrEP should be able to provide: (1) assistance for patients to enroll in health insurance or a medication assistance program (eg, Ready, Set, PrEP) for those ineligible for insurance coverage, (2) rapid follow-­up on all laboratory results with reliable patient contact information, and (3) follow-up appointments with clinicians able to prescribe and administer PrEP medications.

Off-label “on-demand” PrEP. An off-label treatment regimen for men who have sex with men (MSM) is termed “on-demand” PrEP or “2-1-1 PrEP” and is included in the CDC guidelines for consideration by clinicians.⁵ This alternative dosing schedule can be used for individuals who have sex less frequently and in a more planned fashion.

On-demand PrEP requires a patient to take 2 tablets of Truvada 2 to 24 hours before sex, followed by 1 tablet 24 hours and 1 tablet 48 hours after sexual activity. If a sexual act occurs at 48 hours, the patient should extend the daily dose for 48 additional hours, such that PrEP is always used daily for 48 hours after the last sex act.

This method has been studied with Truvada in MSM in Europe and Canada through the IPERGAY and PREVENIR trials and shown to have ≥ 86% efficacy in preventing HIV acquisition.^11,12 The only US-based study showed lower efficacy; however, based on the currently available data, the International Antiviral Society-USA Panel has recommended it as an alternative regimen.^13,14

PrEP via telehealth. Visits for PrEP initiation and continuation can be completed via telehealth.⁵ Patients then can complete necessary laboratory tests by going to a physical laboratory location or using mailed specimen kits in which they can self-collect urine, oral/rectal swabs, and fingerstick blood samples.

Continue to: PrEP use in specific populations

 

 

PrEP use in specific populations

Adolescents

Truvada, Descovy, and Apretude all are now approved for use in adolescents weighing ≥ 35 kg. Two important considerations when prescribing to this population are the effects of Truvada on bone health and the unique barriers to access.

In studies of adolescent MSM using Truvada for PrEP, bone mineral density declined, especially among those ages 15 to 19 years.¹⁵ As such, the clinical impact of decreased bone mineral density should be weighed against the risk for HIV acquisition; however, bone mineral density monitoring is not recommended in the current guidelines. CDC guidelines suggest considering Descovy for male adolescents given its potential lower impact on bone mineral density.⁵

Confidentiality and legal issues exist when prescribing PrEP to minors. In terms of parental/guardian involvement, clinicians who are prescribing PrEP for patients younger than 18 years should consult the CDC website for guidance on local and state regulations that govern prescribing and confidentiality (www.cdc.gov/hiv/policies/law/states/­minors.html).

CDC guidelines suggest considering Descovy for male adolescents given its potential lower impact on bone mineral density.

Insurance billing statements may lead to inadvertent disclosure of a minor’s decision to take PrEP to their legal guardian.¹⁶ Generic Truvada costs less than $100 for a 3-month supply when using goodrx.com, which may offer an alternative to insurance for medication payment. 

Peripartum patients

The increased risk for HIV acquisition in the peripartum period for female patients is well documented.¹⁷ Guidelines recommend offering PrEP with Truvada to female patients at risk for conception, currently pregnant, or breastfeeding when that patient’s partner has HIV and the partner’s viral load is unknown or detectable. Descovy is not recommended for pregnant or breastfeeding patients.⁵ Cabotegravir­-containing regimens (Apretude) have not been approved by the FDA for pregnant or breastfeeding patients.⁵

Continue to: Data on the impact of...

Data on the impact of Truvada for PrEP on fetal health are still emerging. A large study in Kenya showed no significant differences in preterm birth, low birth weight, or early infant growth, and a randomized, noninferiority trial in South Africa showed no association between Truvada for PrEP and preterm birth or the birth of small-for-­gestational-age infants.^18,19 There are no definitive studies of breastfeeding infants exposed to Truvada, but data from previous trials of breastfeeding mothers who were taking the individual components that are combined in the Truvada pill indicated there is minimal medication exposure to the infant.⁵

PrEP studies in the peripartum period to date have been conducted exclusively among cisgender women, and data do not yet reflect the experiences of transgender men, genderqueer people, and nonbinary individuals in the peripartum period.⁵

Transgender people

Transgender women should be strongly considered candidates for PrEP as they are at an extremely high risk for HIV acquisition. The most recent National HIV Behavioral Surveillance survey found that approximately 42% of transgender women were living with HIV.²⁰ The survey revealed stark racial and ethnic disparities among transgender women living with HIV: 62% identified as Black/African American, compared with 35% Hispanic/Latina and 17% White.²⁰

Transgender women report high rates of sexual assault, unprotected receptive anal sex, commercial sex work, homelessness, mental health disorders, and substance use, putting them at increased risk for HIV acquisition.²¹ However, transgender women are less likely to have discussed PrEP with a clinician, are less likely to be on PrEP even when interested in starting, and have higher rates of medication nonadherence compared with cisgender MSM.^21,22 PrEP has not been found to decrease levels of feminizing hormones; however, studies are mixed as to whether feminizing hormones decrease Truvada concentrations in rectal mucosa, so clinicians should emphasize the importance of daily medication adherence.²³

Transgender men have not been included in any PrEP trials, so no specific recommendations are available. 

Continue to: Disparities in PrEP access and use exist

 

 

Disparities in PrEP access and use exist

The lifetime risk for HIV acquisition is 9% among White MSM, 50% among Black MSM, and 20% among Hispanic MSM.²⁴ Despite this large disparity in disease burden, Black and Hispanic individuals are less likely to be aware of PrEP, have discussed PrEP with a health care professional, or used PrEP compared with their White counterparts.²⁵ As a result, in 2020, PrEP coverage for eligible White individuals was 61%, while coverage among eligible Black and Hispanic/Latino individuals was just 8% and 14%, respectively.²⁶

Rural areas have been shown to lag behind urban areas in PrEP awareness and use.

Surveillance data comparing male and female PrEP coverage reveal further disparities between the sexes, with PrEP coverage for eligible female-at-birth patients estimated to be 9% compared with 25.8% for male-at-birth patients.²⁶ The gap between the risk for HIV infection and the access to and uptake of PrEP coverage is most pronounced among Black women, for whom the rate of new HIV diagnosis is > 10 times higher than it is for White women, but who have some of the lowest awareness and utilization rates of all demographics.²⁷

The rural population at risk. Disparities in HIV awareness and PrEP use also exist between rural and urban populations, as well as by health insurance status. Rural areas have been shown to lag behind urban areas in PrEP awareness and use. Two potential explanations for this disparity are differences­ in HIV- and drug use–associated stigma and health insurance status. Greater stigma against drug use and HIV in rural areas has been associated with lower rates of PrEP use.²⁸

Individuals younger than 65 years in rural areas are less likely to have private health insurance and more likely to be uninsured compared with their urban counterparts, which may impact access to clinicians knowledgeable about PrEP.²⁹ Notably, MSM who live in states that have expanded Medicaid have higher rates of PrEP use compared with MSM living in states that have not expanded Medicaid.³⁰

Health insurers in the United States are required to cover PrEP medication, clinician visits, and associated blood work with no patient cost-sharing, although implementation barriers such as prior authorizations still exist. 

Conclusion

Family physicians are well positioned to identify patients at risk for HIV infection, prescribe PrEP, organize comprehensive follow-up care, and partner with their health systems and local communities to reduce barriers to care. Those who can leverage existing relationships with local health departments, school-based health clinics, congregate housing programs, LGBTQIA+ advocacy groups, harm-reduction coalitions, and other community-based organizations to raise PrEP awareness play a critical role in preventing HIV transmission and reducing health care disparities in their communities.

CORRESPONDENCE
Andrew V.A. Foley, MD, MPH, Erie Family Health Centers, 2418 W Division Street, Chicago, IL 60622; andrewvafoley@gmail.com

More than 1.2 million Americans are living with HIV, and more than 30,000 new cases are diagnosed each year. While total incidence has declined since 2016, HIV remains a nationwide epidemic.¹

Medications that prevent HIV acquisition, termed preexposure prophylaxis (PrEP), are an important tool to initiate in the primary care setting to reduce HIV transmission. However, while there are an estimated 1.2 million people eligible for PrEP, only 36% have received PrEP prescriptions.² Several barriers that have impeded its widespread adoption include a lack of clinician knowledge and clinical resources for testing, high medication costs, and stigma around sexual health and intravenous (IV) drug use.

The value of PrEP

PrEP is chemoprophylaxis against the acquisition of HIV infection through the administration of an oral or injectable medication to people at risk for HIV. This practice began in the early 2000s, with the first oral regimen approved in 2012, and since has become an important tool in preventing HIV transmission.

When taken as prescribed, PrEP medications reduce the risk for acquiring HIV through sex by approximately 99% and can reduce the risk for acquiring HIV from injection drug use by approximately 74%.³ The US Preventive Services Task Force issued a Grade “A” recommendation to offer PrEP to people at high risk for HIV acquisition in June 2019 and reaffirmed it in a 2023 update.⁴

PrEP is notably distinct from postexposure prophylaxis (PEP), which is the administration of medication to prevent HIV infection after a possible exposure.

The available regimens

Regimens for PrEP include oral tablets or intramuscular (IM) injections.⁵ There are 3 PrEP regimens approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA): tenofovir disoproxil fumarate/­emtricitabine (Truvada), tenofovir ­alafenamide/emtricitabine (Descovy), and cabotegravir (Apretude).

Incomplete adherence to or abrupt discontinuation of oral PrEP could precipitate a hepatitis B flare.

Truvada is once-daily oral PrEP that was approved in 2012 and is now available in a generic formulation. Notable adverse effects of Truvada include a small negative impact on renal function and small reductions in bone mineral density; these have been noted in individual trials, but in meta-­analyses such differences were not found to be statistically significant.^6-8 The most common adverse effects of Truvada, experienced by up to 6% of patients, are gastrointestinal symptoms, fatigue, headache/dizziness, depression, and insomnia; most symptoms resolve within weeks.

Continue to: Descovy

Descovy is daily oral PrEP that was approved in 2019. Descovy is associated with increases in LDL and triglycerides but has less impact on renal and bone health.⁹ The most common adverse effect of Descovy, experienced by about 5% of patients, is diarrhea, followed by nausea.

Apretude was approved in 2021 and is a 600-mg IM injection given monthly for 2 months, then every 2 months (± 7 days). The advantages of Apretude are frequency and discreteness of dosing and the ability to use in patients with estimated creatinine clearance (eCrCl) > 15 mL/min. The most common adverse effects of Apretude are injection-site reactions, which occur in 30% to 80% of patients but are rarely significant enough to lead to discontinuation (< 2% of patients discontinue use due to injection-site reactions).¹⁰ 

Who should take PrEP?

The latest Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines recommend that all sexually active adults receive information about PrEP.⁵ Indications for PrEP are broad and summarized in the FIGURE.⁵

PrEP is indicated in patients who report sexual or injection drug use behaviors that place them at substantial ongoing risk for HIV exposure. Specific indications include patients with sexual partner(s) with unknown HIV status with whom they have inconsistent or no condom use, a history of bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the past 6 months, an HIV-positive sexual partner, or the sharing of injection drug equipment.

Hepatitis B infection is not a contraindication for PrEP use, but knowledge of infection status is essential. All current oral medications used for PrEP have activity against hepatitis B. Incomplete adherence to or abrupt discontinuation of oral PrEP could precipitate a hepatitis B flare. Hepatitis B surface antigen should be tested at the time of PrEP initiation, although PrEP can begin while testing is in process.

Continue to: How to use PrEP

 

 

How to use PrEP

At PrEP initiation, acute or chronic HIV infection must be excluded with a documented negative HIV antigen/antibody test within 1 week of prescribing PrEP.⁵ The CDC guidelines provide an updated HIV testing algorithm (www.cdc.gov/hiv/pdf/risk/prep/cdc-hiv-prep-guidelines-2021.pdf, p 30-31, Figures 4a and 4b), which considers whether patients have received PrEP recently.

Patients with recent high-risk exposures or symptoms of acute HIV at the time of desired PrEP initiation should have an HIV-1 viral load checked with negative results before PrEP is prescribed. Additional criteria for PrEP include weight > 35 kg; screening for hepatitis B virus infection; screening for drug interactions; and drug-specific eCrCl cutoffs of > 60 mL/min for Truvada, > 30 mL/min for Descovy, and > 15 mL/min for Apretude.⁵

Studies regarding time to medication effectiveness are limited. Pharmacokinetic studies of Truvada demonstrate sufficient drug concentrations should be present in peripheral blood mononuclear cells and rectal tissue within 7 days of initiation of oral dosing and around 20 days in vaginal tissue.

Of note, while expedited partner therapy is used as a harm-reduction strategy to treat the sexual partners of patients diagnosed with certain STIs, PrEP is not recommended to be used in this way.

Ongoing monitoring with PrEP. Once oral PrEP is started, STI risk assessment and HIV testing via 4th generation antibody/antigen­ test should be completed at least every 3 months. PrEP oral prescription refills should be limited to 3 months. For patients receiving IM PrEP (Apretude), HIV testing via viral load and antibody/antigen testing should be done at the time of each injection (every 2 months).⁵

Continue to: With oral PrEP...

With oral PrEP, renal function should be checked every 6 months in patients older than 50 years or those with eCrCl < 90 mL/min at initiation. For patients younger than 50 years with no baseline renal dysfunction, the latest guidelines now recommend monitoring every 12 months instead of 6 months.⁵

For patients on Descovy, a lipid panel is recommended at PrEP initiation and every 12 months. Testing for other STIs can be considered on this schedule, based on clinical assessment. The TABLE⁵ summarizes recommended monitoring for patients taking oral PrEP.

Recommended follow-up provides an opportunity to have frequent contact with a potentially high-risk population, and PrEP should be one part of a comprehensive HIV prevention and risk reduction plan. Many patients at high risk for HIV acquisition may benefit from frequent follow-up to address screening, referral, and treatment of substance use disorders, mental health conditions, and chronic medical conditions (including hepatitis C infection) and provide ongoing preventive health care. 

Special uses of PrEP 

Same-day PrEP. Starting PrEP on the day of the initial appointment may be appropriate based on patient risk factors and barriers to care, such as a high risk for contracting HIV before the subsequent appointment for a prescription of PrEP or an inability to return to the clinic in a timely fashion due to transportation or work constraints, or clinician availability. For these patients, assuming there is a low concern for acute or chronic HIV infection, PrEP can be initiated on the day of the initial visit.⁵

In these cases, point-of-care HIV and creatinine testing with same-day results should be completed. Antigen/antibody fingerstick testing or HIV-1 RNA test are preferred; oral fluid HIV testing should not be used for same-day PrEP due to its lower sensitivity for HIV detection. If same-day testing is unavailable, blood should be drawn at the visit so that HIV and creatinine testing can be completed as soon as possible.

Continue to: In addition to initial laboratory testing...

In addition to initial laboratory testing, clinics offering same-day PrEP should be able to provide: (1) assistance for patients to enroll in health insurance or a medication assistance program (eg, Ready, Set, PrEP) for those ineligible for insurance coverage, (2) rapid follow-­up on all laboratory results with reliable patient contact information, and (3) follow-up appointments with clinicians able to prescribe and administer PrEP medications.

Off-label “on-demand” PrEP. An off-label treatment regimen for men who have sex with men (MSM) is termed “on-demand” PrEP or “2-1-1 PrEP” and is included in the CDC guidelines for consideration by clinicians.⁵ This alternative dosing schedule can be used for individuals who have sex less frequently and in a more planned fashion.

On-demand PrEP requires a patient to take 2 tablets of Truvada 2 to 24 hours before sex, followed by 1 tablet 24 hours and 1 tablet 48 hours after sexual activity. If a sexual act occurs at 48 hours, the patient should extend the daily dose for 48 additional hours, such that PrEP is always used daily for 48 hours after the last sex act.

This method has been studied with Truvada in MSM in Europe and Canada through the IPERGAY and PREVENIR trials and shown to have ≥ 86% efficacy in preventing HIV acquisition.^11,12 The only US-based study showed lower efficacy; however, based on the currently available data, the International Antiviral Society-USA Panel has recommended it as an alternative regimen.^13,14

PrEP via telehealth. Visits for PrEP initiation and continuation can be completed via telehealth.⁵ Patients then can complete necessary laboratory tests by going to a physical laboratory location or using mailed specimen kits in which they can self-collect urine, oral/rectal swabs, and fingerstick blood samples.

Continue to: PrEP use in specific populations

 

 

PrEP use in specific populations

Adolescents

Truvada, Descovy, and Apretude all are now approved for use in adolescents weighing ≥ 35 kg. Two important considerations when prescribing to this population are the effects of Truvada on bone health and the unique barriers to access.

In studies of adolescent MSM using Truvada for PrEP, bone mineral density declined, especially among those ages 15 to 19 years.¹⁵ As such, the clinical impact of decreased bone mineral density should be weighed against the risk for HIV acquisition; however, bone mineral density monitoring is not recommended in the current guidelines. CDC guidelines suggest considering Descovy for male adolescents given its potential lower impact on bone mineral density.⁵

Confidentiality and legal issues exist when prescribing PrEP to minors. In terms of parental/guardian involvement, clinicians who are prescribing PrEP for patients younger than 18 years should consult the CDC website for guidance on local and state regulations that govern prescribing and confidentiality (www.cdc.gov/hiv/policies/law/states/­minors.html).

CDC guidelines suggest considering Descovy for male adolescents given its potential lower impact on bone mineral density.

Insurance billing statements may lead to inadvertent disclosure of a minor’s decision to take PrEP to their legal guardian.¹⁶ Generic Truvada costs less than $100 for a 3-month supply when using goodrx.com, which may offer an alternative to insurance for medication payment. 

Peripartum patients

The increased risk for HIV acquisition in the peripartum period for female patients is well documented.¹⁷ Guidelines recommend offering PrEP with Truvada to female patients at risk for conception, currently pregnant, or breastfeeding when that patient’s partner has HIV and the partner’s viral load is unknown or detectable. Descovy is not recommended for pregnant or breastfeeding patients.⁵ Cabotegravir­-containing regimens (Apretude) have not been approved by the FDA for pregnant or breastfeeding patients.⁵

Continue to: Data on the impact of...

Data on the impact of Truvada for PrEP on fetal health are still emerging. A large study in Kenya showed no significant differences in preterm birth, low birth weight, or early infant growth, and a randomized, noninferiority trial in South Africa showed no association between Truvada for PrEP and preterm birth or the birth of small-for-­gestational-age infants.^18,19 There are no definitive studies of breastfeeding infants exposed to Truvada, but data from previous trials of breastfeeding mothers who were taking the individual components that are combined in the Truvada pill indicated there is minimal medication exposure to the infant.⁵

PrEP studies in the peripartum period to date have been conducted exclusively among cisgender women, and data do not yet reflect the experiences of transgender men, genderqueer people, and nonbinary individuals in the peripartum period.⁵

Transgender people

Transgender women should be strongly considered candidates for PrEP as they are at an extremely high risk for HIV acquisition. The most recent National HIV Behavioral Surveillance survey found that approximately 42% of transgender women were living with HIV.²⁰ The survey revealed stark racial and ethnic disparities among transgender women living with HIV: 62% identified as Black/African American, compared with 35% Hispanic/Latina and 17% White.²⁰

Transgender women report high rates of sexual assault, unprotected receptive anal sex, commercial sex work, homelessness, mental health disorders, and substance use, putting them at increased risk for HIV acquisition.²¹ However, transgender women are less likely to have discussed PrEP with a clinician, are less likely to be on PrEP even when interested in starting, and have higher rates of medication nonadherence compared with cisgender MSM.^21,22 PrEP has not been found to decrease levels of feminizing hormones; however, studies are mixed as to whether feminizing hormones decrease Truvada concentrations in rectal mucosa, so clinicians should emphasize the importance of daily medication adherence.²³

Transgender men have not been included in any PrEP trials, so no specific recommendations are available. 

Continue to: Disparities in PrEP access and use exist

 

 

Disparities in PrEP access and use exist

The lifetime risk for HIV acquisition is 9% among White MSM, 50% among Black MSM, and 20% among Hispanic MSM.²⁴ Despite this large disparity in disease burden, Black and Hispanic individuals are less likely to be aware of PrEP, have discussed PrEP with a health care professional, or used PrEP compared with their White counterparts.²⁵ As a result, in 2020, PrEP coverage for eligible White individuals was 61%, while coverage among eligible Black and Hispanic/Latino individuals was just 8% and 14%, respectively.²⁶

Rural areas have been shown to lag behind urban areas in PrEP awareness and use.

Surveillance data comparing male and female PrEP coverage reveal further disparities between the sexes, with PrEP coverage for eligible female-at-birth patients estimated to be 9% compared with 25.8% for male-at-birth patients.²⁶ The gap between the risk for HIV infection and the access to and uptake of PrEP coverage is most pronounced among Black women, for whom the rate of new HIV diagnosis is > 10 times higher than it is for White women, but who have some of the lowest awareness and utilization rates of all demographics.²⁷

The rural population at risk. Disparities in HIV awareness and PrEP use also exist between rural and urban populations, as well as by health insurance status. Rural areas have been shown to lag behind urban areas in PrEP awareness and use. Two potential explanations for this disparity are differences­ in HIV- and drug use–associated stigma and health insurance status. Greater stigma against drug use and HIV in rural areas has been associated with lower rates of PrEP use.²⁸

Individuals younger than 65 years in rural areas are less likely to have private health insurance and more likely to be uninsured compared with their urban counterparts, which may impact access to clinicians knowledgeable about PrEP.²⁹ Notably, MSM who live in states that have expanded Medicaid have higher rates of PrEP use compared with MSM living in states that have not expanded Medicaid.³⁰

Health insurers in the United States are required to cover PrEP medication, clinician visits, and associated blood work with no patient cost-sharing, although implementation barriers such as prior authorizations still exist. 

Conclusion

Family physicians are well positioned to identify patients at risk for HIV infection, prescribe PrEP, organize comprehensive follow-up care, and partner with their health systems and local communities to reduce barriers to care. Those who can leverage existing relationships with local health departments, school-based health clinics, congregate housing programs, LGBTQIA+ advocacy groups, harm-reduction coalitions, and other community-based organizations to raise PrEP awareness play a critical role in preventing HIV transmission and reducing health care disparities in their communities.

CORRESPONDENCE
Andrew V.A. Foley, MD, MPH, Erie Family Health Centers, 2418 W Division Street, Chicago, IL 60622; andrewvafoley@gmail.com

More than 1.2 million Americans are living with HIV, and more than 30,000 new cases are diagnosed each year. While total incidence has declined since 2016, HIV remains a nationwide epidemic.¹

Medications that prevent HIV acquisition, termed preexposure prophylaxis (PrEP), are an important tool to initiate in the primary care setting to reduce HIV transmission. However, while there are an estimated 1.2 million people eligible for PrEP, only 36% have received PrEP prescriptions.² Several barriers that have impeded its widespread adoption include a lack of clinician knowledge and clinical resources for testing, high medication costs, and stigma around sexual health and intravenous (IV) drug use.

The value of PrEP

PrEP is chemoprophylaxis against the acquisition of HIV infection through the administration of an oral or injectable medication to people at risk for HIV. This practice began in the early 2000s, with the first oral regimen approved in 2012, and since has become an important tool in preventing HIV transmission.

When taken as prescribed, PrEP medications reduce the risk for acquiring HIV through sex by approximately 99% and can reduce the risk for acquiring HIV from injection drug use by approximately 74%.³ The US Preventive Services Task Force issued a Grade “A” recommendation to offer PrEP to people at high risk for HIV acquisition in June 2019 and reaffirmed it in a 2023 update.⁴

PrEP is notably distinct from postexposure prophylaxis (PEP), which is the administration of medication to prevent HIV infection after a possible exposure.

The available regimens

Regimens for PrEP include oral tablets or intramuscular (IM) injections.⁵ There are 3 PrEP regimens approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA): tenofovir disoproxil fumarate/­emtricitabine (Truvada), tenofovir ­alafenamide/emtricitabine (Descovy), and cabotegravir (Apretude).

Incomplete adherence to or abrupt discontinuation of oral PrEP could precipitate a hepatitis B flare.

Truvada is once-daily oral PrEP that was approved in 2012 and is now available in a generic formulation. Notable adverse effects of Truvada include a small negative impact on renal function and small reductions in bone mineral density; these have been noted in individual trials, but in meta-­analyses such differences were not found to be statistically significant.^6-8 The most common adverse effects of Truvada, experienced by up to 6% of patients, are gastrointestinal symptoms, fatigue, headache/dizziness, depression, and insomnia; most symptoms resolve within weeks.

Continue to: Descovy

Descovy is daily oral PrEP that was approved in 2019. Descovy is associated with increases in LDL and triglycerides but has less impact on renal and bone health.⁹ The most common adverse effect of Descovy, experienced by about 5% of patients, is diarrhea, followed by nausea.

Apretude was approved in 2021 and is a 600-mg IM injection given monthly for 2 months, then every 2 months (± 7 days). The advantages of Apretude are frequency and discreteness of dosing and the ability to use in patients with estimated creatinine clearance (eCrCl) > 15 mL/min. The most common adverse effects of Apretude are injection-site reactions, which occur in 30% to 80% of patients but are rarely significant enough to lead to discontinuation (< 2% of patients discontinue use due to injection-site reactions).¹⁰ 

Who should take PrEP?

The latest Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines recommend that all sexually active adults receive information about PrEP.⁵ Indications for PrEP are broad and summarized in the FIGURE.⁵

PrEP is indicated in patients who report sexual or injection drug use behaviors that place them at substantial ongoing risk for HIV exposure. Specific indications include patients with sexual partner(s) with unknown HIV status with whom they have inconsistent or no condom use, a history of bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the past 6 months, an HIV-positive sexual partner, or the sharing of injection drug equipment.

Hepatitis B infection is not a contraindication for PrEP use, but knowledge of infection status is essential. All current oral medications used for PrEP have activity against hepatitis B. Incomplete adherence to or abrupt discontinuation of oral PrEP could precipitate a hepatitis B flare. Hepatitis B surface antigen should be tested at the time of PrEP initiation, although PrEP can begin while testing is in process.

Continue to: How to use PrEP

 

 

How to use PrEP

At PrEP initiation, acute or chronic HIV infection must be excluded with a documented negative HIV antigen/antibody test within 1 week of prescribing PrEP.⁵ The CDC guidelines provide an updated HIV testing algorithm (www.cdc.gov/hiv/pdf/risk/prep/cdc-hiv-prep-guidelines-2021.pdf, p 30-31, Figures 4a and 4b), which considers whether patients have received PrEP recently.

Patients with recent high-risk exposures or symptoms of acute HIV at the time of desired PrEP initiation should have an HIV-1 viral load checked with negative results before PrEP is prescribed. Additional criteria for PrEP include weight > 35 kg; screening for hepatitis B virus infection; screening for drug interactions; and drug-specific eCrCl cutoffs of > 60 mL/min for Truvada, > 30 mL/min for Descovy, and > 15 mL/min for Apretude.⁵

Studies regarding time to medication effectiveness are limited. Pharmacokinetic studies of Truvada demonstrate sufficient drug concentrations should be present in peripheral blood mononuclear cells and rectal tissue within 7 days of initiation of oral dosing and around 20 days in vaginal tissue.

Of note, while expedited partner therapy is used as a harm-reduction strategy to treat the sexual partners of patients diagnosed with certain STIs, PrEP is not recommended to be used in this way.

Ongoing monitoring with PrEP. Once oral PrEP is started, STI risk assessment and HIV testing via 4th generation antibody/antigen­ test should be completed at least every 3 months. PrEP oral prescription refills should be limited to 3 months. For patients receiving IM PrEP (Apretude), HIV testing via viral load and antibody/antigen testing should be done at the time of each injection (every 2 months).⁵

Continue to: With oral PrEP...

With oral PrEP, renal function should be checked every 6 months in patients older than 50 years or those with eCrCl < 90 mL/min at initiation. For patients younger than 50 years with no baseline renal dysfunction, the latest guidelines now recommend monitoring every 12 months instead of 6 months.⁵

For patients on Descovy, a lipid panel is recommended at PrEP initiation and every 12 months. Testing for other STIs can be considered on this schedule, based on clinical assessment. The TABLE⁵ summarizes recommended monitoring for patients taking oral PrEP.

Recommended follow-up provides an opportunity to have frequent contact with a potentially high-risk population, and PrEP should be one part of a comprehensive HIV prevention and risk reduction plan. Many patients at high risk for HIV acquisition may benefit from frequent follow-up to address screening, referral, and treatment of substance use disorders, mental health conditions, and chronic medical conditions (including hepatitis C infection) and provide ongoing preventive health care. 

Special uses of PrEP 

Same-day PrEP. Starting PrEP on the day of the initial appointment may be appropriate based on patient risk factors and barriers to care, such as a high risk for contracting HIV before the subsequent appointment for a prescription of PrEP or an inability to return to the clinic in a timely fashion due to transportation or work constraints, or clinician availability. For these patients, assuming there is a low concern for acute or chronic HIV infection, PrEP can be initiated on the day of the initial visit.⁵

In these cases, point-of-care HIV and creatinine testing with same-day results should be completed. Antigen/antibody fingerstick testing or HIV-1 RNA test are preferred; oral fluid HIV testing should not be used for same-day PrEP due to its lower sensitivity for HIV detection. If same-day testing is unavailable, blood should be drawn at the visit so that HIV and creatinine testing can be completed as soon as possible.

Continue to: In addition to initial laboratory testing...

In addition to initial laboratory testing, clinics offering same-day PrEP should be able to provide: (1) assistance for patients to enroll in health insurance or a medication assistance program (eg, Ready, Set, PrEP) for those ineligible for insurance coverage, (2) rapid follow-­up on all laboratory results with reliable patient contact information, and (3) follow-up appointments with clinicians able to prescribe and administer PrEP medications.

Off-label “on-demand” PrEP. An off-label treatment regimen for men who have sex with men (MSM) is termed “on-demand” PrEP or “2-1-1 PrEP” and is included in the CDC guidelines for consideration by clinicians.⁵ This alternative dosing schedule can be used for individuals who have sex less frequently and in a more planned fashion.

On-demand PrEP requires a patient to take 2 tablets of Truvada 2 to 24 hours before sex, followed by 1 tablet 24 hours and 1 tablet 48 hours after sexual activity. If a sexual act occurs at 48 hours, the patient should extend the daily dose for 48 additional hours, such that PrEP is always used daily for 48 hours after the last sex act.

This method has been studied with Truvada in MSM in Europe and Canada through the IPERGAY and PREVENIR trials and shown to have ≥ 86% efficacy in preventing HIV acquisition.^11,12 The only US-based study showed lower efficacy; however, based on the currently available data, the International Antiviral Society-USA Panel has recommended it as an alternative regimen.^13,14

PrEP via telehealth. Visits for PrEP initiation and continuation can be completed via telehealth.⁵ Patients then can complete necessary laboratory tests by going to a physical laboratory location or using mailed specimen kits in which they can self-collect urine, oral/rectal swabs, and fingerstick blood samples.

Continue to: PrEP use in specific populations

 

 

PrEP use in specific populations

Adolescents

Truvada, Descovy, and Apretude all are now approved for use in adolescents weighing ≥ 35 kg. Two important considerations when prescribing to this population are the effects of Truvada on bone health and the unique barriers to access.

In studies of adolescent MSM using Truvada for PrEP, bone mineral density declined, especially among those ages 15 to 19 years.¹⁵ As such, the clinical impact of decreased bone mineral density should be weighed against the risk for HIV acquisition; however, bone mineral density monitoring is not recommended in the current guidelines. CDC guidelines suggest considering Descovy for male adolescents given its potential lower impact on bone mineral density.⁵

Confidentiality and legal issues exist when prescribing PrEP to minors. In terms of parental/guardian involvement, clinicians who are prescribing PrEP for patients younger than 18 years should consult the CDC website for guidance on local and state regulations that govern prescribing and confidentiality (www.cdc.gov/hiv/policies/law/states/­minors.html).

CDC guidelines suggest considering Descovy for male adolescents given its potential lower impact on bone mineral density.

Insurance billing statements may lead to inadvertent disclosure of a minor’s decision to take PrEP to their legal guardian.¹⁶ Generic Truvada costs less than $100 for a 3-month supply when using goodrx.com, which may offer an alternative to insurance for medication payment. 

Peripartum patients

The increased risk for HIV acquisition in the peripartum period for female patients is well documented.¹⁷ Guidelines recommend offering PrEP with Truvada to female patients at risk for conception, currently pregnant, or breastfeeding when that patient’s partner has HIV and the partner’s viral load is unknown or detectable. Descovy is not recommended for pregnant or breastfeeding patients.⁵ Cabotegravir­-containing regimens (Apretude) have not been approved by the FDA for pregnant or breastfeeding patients.⁵

Continue to: Data on the impact of...

Data on the impact of Truvada for PrEP on fetal health are still emerging. A large study in Kenya showed no significant differences in preterm birth, low birth weight, or early infant growth, and a randomized, noninferiority trial in South Africa showed no association between Truvada for PrEP and preterm birth or the birth of small-for-­gestational-age infants.^18,19 There are no definitive studies of breastfeeding infants exposed to Truvada, but data from previous trials of breastfeeding mothers who were taking the individual components that are combined in the Truvada pill indicated there is minimal medication exposure to the infant.⁵

PrEP studies in the peripartum period to date have been conducted exclusively among cisgender women, and data do not yet reflect the experiences of transgender men, genderqueer people, and nonbinary individuals in the peripartum period.⁵

Transgender people

Transgender women should be strongly considered candidates for PrEP as they are at an extremely high risk for HIV acquisition. The most recent National HIV Behavioral Surveillance survey found that approximately 42% of transgender women were living with HIV.²⁰ The survey revealed stark racial and ethnic disparities among transgender women living with HIV: 62% identified as Black/African American, compared with 35% Hispanic/Latina and 17% White.²⁰

Transgender women report high rates of sexual assault, unprotected receptive anal sex, commercial sex work, homelessness, mental health disorders, and substance use, putting them at increased risk for HIV acquisition.²¹ However, transgender women are less likely to have discussed PrEP with a clinician, are less likely to be on PrEP even when interested in starting, and have higher rates of medication nonadherence compared with cisgender MSM.^21,22 PrEP has not been found to decrease levels of feminizing hormones; however, studies are mixed as to whether feminizing hormones decrease Truvada concentrations in rectal mucosa, so clinicians should emphasize the importance of daily medication adherence.²³

Transgender men have not been included in any PrEP trials, so no specific recommendations are available. 

Continue to: Disparities in PrEP access and use exist

 

 

Disparities in PrEP access and use exist

The lifetime risk for HIV acquisition is 9% among White MSM, 50% among Black MSM, and 20% among Hispanic MSM.²⁴ Despite this large disparity in disease burden, Black and Hispanic individuals are less likely to be aware of PrEP, have discussed PrEP with a health care professional, or used PrEP compared with their White counterparts.²⁵ As a result, in 2020, PrEP coverage for eligible White individuals was 61%, while coverage among eligible Black and Hispanic/Latino individuals was just 8% and 14%, respectively.²⁶

Rural areas have been shown to lag behind urban areas in PrEP awareness and use.

Surveillance data comparing male and female PrEP coverage reveal further disparities between the sexes, with PrEP coverage for eligible female-at-birth patients estimated to be 9% compared with 25.8% for male-at-birth patients.²⁶ The gap between the risk for HIV infection and the access to and uptake of PrEP coverage is most pronounced among Black women, for whom the rate of new HIV diagnosis is > 10 times higher than it is for White women, but who have some of the lowest awareness and utilization rates of all demographics.²⁷

The rural population at risk. Disparities in HIV awareness and PrEP use also exist between rural and urban populations, as well as by health insurance status. Rural areas have been shown to lag behind urban areas in PrEP awareness and use. Two potential explanations for this disparity are differences­ in HIV- and drug use–associated stigma and health insurance status. Greater stigma against drug use and HIV in rural areas has been associated with lower rates of PrEP use.²⁸

Individuals younger than 65 years in rural areas are less likely to have private health insurance and more likely to be uninsured compared with their urban counterparts, which may impact access to clinicians knowledgeable about PrEP.²⁹ Notably, MSM who live in states that have expanded Medicaid have higher rates of PrEP use compared with MSM living in states that have not expanded Medicaid.³⁰

Health insurers in the United States are required to cover PrEP medication, clinician visits, and associated blood work with no patient cost-sharing, although implementation barriers such as prior authorizations still exist. 

Conclusion

Family physicians are well positioned to identify patients at risk for HIV infection, prescribe PrEP, organize comprehensive follow-up care, and partner with their health systems and local communities to reduce barriers to care. Those who can leverage existing relationships with local health departments, school-based health clinics, congregate housing programs, LGBTQIA+ advocacy groups, harm-reduction coalitions, and other community-based organizations to raise PrEP awareness play a critical role in preventing HIV transmission and reducing health care disparities in their communities.

CORRESPONDENCE
Andrew V.A. Foley, MD, MPH, Erie Family Health Centers, 2418 W Division Street, Chicago, IL 60622; andrewvafoley@gmail.com

Welcome to Impact Factor, your weekly dose of commentary on a new medical study. I’m Dr F. Perry Wilson of the Yale School of Medicine.

Every once in a while, medicine changes in a fundamental way, and we may not realize it while it’s happening. I wasn’t around in 1928 when Fleming discovered penicillin; or in 1953 when Watson, Crick, and Franklin characterized the double-helical structure of DNA.

But looking at medicine today, there are essentially two places where I think we will see, in retrospect, that we were at a fundamental turning point. One is artificial intelligence, which gets so much attention and hype that I will simply say yes, this will change things, stay tuned.

The other is a bit more obscure, but I suspect it may be just as impactful. That other thing is RNA therapeutics – the medicines of the future.

I want to start with the idea that many diseases are, fundamentally, a problem of proteins. In some cases, like hypercholesterolemia, the body produces too much protein; in others, like hemophilia, too little.

Dr. F. Perry Wilson

Dr. F. Perry Wilson

JAMA

JAMA

JAMA

JAMA

The New England Journal of Medicine

Dr. F. Perry Wilson is associate professor of medicine and public health and director of the Clinical and Translational Research Accelerator at Yale University, New Haven, Conn. He has disclosed no relevant financial relationships. This transcript has been edited for clarity.

A version of this article appeared on Medscape.com.

Welcome to Impact Factor, your weekly dose of commentary on a new medical study. I’m Dr F. Perry Wilson of the Yale School of Medicine.

Every once in a while, medicine changes in a fundamental way, and we may not realize it while it’s happening. I wasn’t around in 1928 when Fleming discovered penicillin; or in 1953 when Watson, Crick, and Franklin characterized the double-helical structure of DNA.

But looking at medicine today, there are essentially two places where I think we will see, in retrospect, that we were at a fundamental turning point. One is artificial intelligence, which gets so much attention and hype that I will simply say yes, this will change things, stay tuned.

The other is a bit more obscure, but I suspect it may be just as impactful. That other thing is RNA therapeutics – the medicines of the future.

I want to start with the idea that many diseases are, fundamentally, a problem of proteins. In some cases, like hypercholesterolemia, the body produces too much protein; in others, like hemophilia, too little.

Dr. F. Perry Wilson

Dr. F. Perry Wilson

JAMA

JAMA

JAMA

JAMA

The New England Journal of Medicine

Dr. F. Perry Wilson is associate professor of medicine and public health and director of the Clinical and Translational Research Accelerator at Yale University, New Haven, Conn. He has disclosed no relevant financial relationships. This transcript has been edited for clarity.

A version of this article appeared on Medscape.com.

Welcome to Impact Factor, your weekly dose of commentary on a new medical study. I’m Dr F. Perry Wilson of the Yale School of Medicine.

Every once in a while, medicine changes in a fundamental way, and we may not realize it while it’s happening. I wasn’t around in 1928 when Fleming discovered penicillin; or in 1953 when Watson, Crick, and Franklin characterized the double-helical structure of DNA.

But looking at medicine today, there are essentially two places where I think we will see, in retrospect, that we were at a fundamental turning point. One is artificial intelligence, which gets so much attention and hype that I will simply say yes, this will change things, stay tuned.

The other is a bit more obscure, but I suspect it may be just as impactful. That other thing is RNA therapeutics – the medicines of the future.

I want to start with the idea that many diseases are, fundamentally, a problem of proteins. In some cases, like hypercholesterolemia, the body produces too much protein; in others, like hemophilia, too little.

Dr. F. Perry Wilson

Dr. F. Perry Wilson

JAMA

JAMA

JAMA

JAMA

The New England Journal of Medicine

Dr. F. Perry Wilson is associate professor of medicine and public health and director of the Clinical and Translational Research Accelerator at Yale University, New Haven, Conn. He has disclosed no relevant financial relationships. This transcript has been edited for clarity.

A version of this article appeared on Medscape.com.

A 34-YEAR-OLD MAN presented with a 6-month history of asymptomatic, progressively enlarging subcutaneous nodules over his bilateral lower legs. He denied any history of injury, and there was no bleeding or discharge. The patient had a history of Graves disease that had been treated with radio­iodine therapy 2 years prior, followed by thyroxine replacement (150 mcg/d, 5 d/wk and 125 mcg/d, 2 d/wk). At the time of presentation, his thyroid function tests indicated subclinical hypothyroidism: free T4, 21.2 pmol/L (normal range, 11.8-24.6 pmol/L) and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), 14.07 mIU/L (normal range, 0.27-4.2 mIU/L).

Examination revealed nontender, soft brown nodules over the bilateral shins, with minimal overlying lichenification (FIGURE 1). There was no peau d’orange (orange peel) appearance to suggest significant edema. A punch biopsy was performed.

WHAT IS YOUR DIAGNOSIS?
HOW WOULD YOU TREAT THIS PATIENT?

 

 

Diagnosis: Pretibial myxedema

The patient’s history, paired with the results of the punch biopsy, were consistent with a diagnosis of pretibial myxedema, part of the triad of Graves disease along with thyroid ophthalmopathy and acropachy (soft-tissue swelling of the hands and clubbing of the fingers). Histopathologic findings revealed wide separation of collagen bundles throughout the entire reticular dermis without fibroplasia (FIGURE 2A).­ The spaces contained basophilic strands ­(FIGURE 2B), and the strands stained strongly positive on Alcian blue (FIGURE 2C), confirming the presence of dermal mucin. Widely separated collagen fibers and deposited mucin are indicative of pretibial myxedema. No granulomas or lymphoid proliferations were seen.

The pathogenesis of pretibial myxedema is widely postulated to be due to the stimulation of dermal fibroblasts by anti–TSH antibodies, causing overproduction of glycosaminoglycans and hyaluronic acid¹ and obstructing lymphatic microcirculation, resulting in nonpitting edema.²

There are 5 distinct clinical variants of pretibial myxedema^1,3:

• The diffuse form is the most common. It manifests on the lower leg with hard, nonpitting edema and cutaneous thickening.
• The plaque form manifests on the lower leg as well-demarcated erythematous or pigmented flat-topped lesions.
• The nodular form, which our patient had, typically manifests on the lower leg as well-demarcated erythematous, pigmented, or skin-colored raised, solid lesions. There may be 1 lesion or several.
• The mixed form manifests as 2 or more of the other variants.
• The elephantiasic form is the rarest and the most severe. There are widespread swollen nodules and plaques on the lower legs and/or arms.

A rare, late manifestation

Although pathognomonic for Graves disease, pretibial myxedema is a late manifestation that occurs in less than 5% of these patients.⁴ The most common site of involvement is the pretibial region, although less common sites include the face, arms, shoulders, abdomen, pinna, and the location of previous scars.⁴

While pretibial myxedema usually is associated with hyperthyroidism, it can occur after treatment (as was the case here), while the patient is in a euthyroid or hypothyroid state. Radioiodine therapy has been reported to be a trigger for pretibial myxedema in 1 case report, although the pathophysiology is not fully understood.⁵

Continue to: More serious conditions must be ruled out

 

 

More serious conditions must be ruled out

The differential for painless nodules includes cutaneous lymphoma and atypical infections of fungal or mycobacterial etiology.

Cutaneous lymphoma that manifests with leg tumors includes primary cutaneous anaplastic CD30+ large cell lymphoma ­(PCALCL) and primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type ­(PCDLBL-LT). The former may occur in young patients, whereas the latter tends to manifest in the elderly. Biopsy shows a neoplastic proliferation of atypical lymphocytes within the dermis,⁶ differing from our case.

Atypical infections may be detected through bacterial, mycobacterial, or fungal cultures, and may be accompanied by elevated inflammatory markers or other systemic symptoms of the infection, setting it apart from pretibial myxedema.

Treatment is simple and noninvasive

Pretibial myxedema is usually asymptomatic, with minimal morbidity. The nodular variant may resolve spontaneously; thus, therapeutic management often is reserved for severe cases or for those with cosmetic concerns. Treatment options include mid- to high-potency topical corticosteroids with an occlusive dressing for 1 to 2 weeks (or until resolution) or an intra­lesional triamcinolone injection (5-10 mg/mL, single or monthly until resolution), compression stockings, and pneumatic compression.²

This patient was treated with a single intralesional injection of triamcinolone 10 mg/mL. The nodules resolved within a month.

A 34-YEAR-OLD MAN presented with a 6-month history of asymptomatic, progressively enlarging subcutaneous nodules over his bilateral lower legs. He denied any history of injury, and there was no bleeding or discharge. The patient had a history of Graves disease that had been treated with radio­iodine therapy 2 years prior, followed by thyroxine replacement (150 mcg/d, 5 d/wk and 125 mcg/d, 2 d/wk). At the time of presentation, his thyroid function tests indicated subclinical hypothyroidism: free T4, 21.2 pmol/L (normal range, 11.8-24.6 pmol/L) and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), 14.07 mIU/L (normal range, 0.27-4.2 mIU/L).

Examination revealed nontender, soft brown nodules over the bilateral shins, with minimal overlying lichenification (FIGURE 1). There was no peau d’orange (orange peel) appearance to suggest significant edema. A punch biopsy was performed.

WHAT IS YOUR DIAGNOSIS?
HOW WOULD YOU TREAT THIS PATIENT?

 

 

Diagnosis: Pretibial myxedema

The patient’s history, paired with the results of the punch biopsy, were consistent with a diagnosis of pretibial myxedema, part of the triad of Graves disease along with thyroid ophthalmopathy and acropachy (soft-tissue swelling of the hands and clubbing of the fingers). Histopathologic findings revealed wide separation of collagen bundles throughout the entire reticular dermis without fibroplasia (FIGURE 2A).­ The spaces contained basophilic strands ­(FIGURE 2B), and the strands stained strongly positive on Alcian blue (FIGURE 2C), confirming the presence of dermal mucin. Widely separated collagen fibers and deposited mucin are indicative of pretibial myxedema. No granulomas or lymphoid proliferations were seen.

The pathogenesis of pretibial myxedema is widely postulated to be due to the stimulation of dermal fibroblasts by anti–TSH antibodies, causing overproduction of glycosaminoglycans and hyaluronic acid¹ and obstructing lymphatic microcirculation, resulting in nonpitting edema.²

There are 5 distinct clinical variants of pretibial myxedema^1,3:

• The diffuse form is the most common. It manifests on the lower leg with hard, nonpitting edema and cutaneous thickening.
• The plaque form manifests on the lower leg as well-demarcated erythematous or pigmented flat-topped lesions.
• The nodular form, which our patient had, typically manifests on the lower leg as well-demarcated erythematous, pigmented, or skin-colored raised, solid lesions. There may be 1 lesion or several.
• The mixed form manifests as 2 or more of the other variants.
• The elephantiasic form is the rarest and the most severe. There are widespread swollen nodules and plaques on the lower legs and/or arms.

A rare, late manifestation

Although pathognomonic for Graves disease, pretibial myxedema is a late manifestation that occurs in less than 5% of these patients.⁴ The most common site of involvement is the pretibial region, although less common sites include the face, arms, shoulders, abdomen, pinna, and the location of previous scars.⁴

While pretibial myxedema usually is associated with hyperthyroidism, it can occur after treatment (as was the case here), while the patient is in a euthyroid or hypothyroid state. Radioiodine therapy has been reported to be a trigger for pretibial myxedema in 1 case report, although the pathophysiology is not fully understood.⁵

Continue to: More serious conditions must be ruled out

 

 

More serious conditions must be ruled out

The differential for painless nodules includes cutaneous lymphoma and atypical infections of fungal or mycobacterial etiology.

Cutaneous lymphoma that manifests with leg tumors includes primary cutaneous anaplastic CD30+ large cell lymphoma ­(PCALCL) and primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type ­(PCDLBL-LT). The former may occur in young patients, whereas the latter tends to manifest in the elderly. Biopsy shows a neoplastic proliferation of atypical lymphocytes within the dermis,⁶ differing from our case.

Atypical infections may be detected through bacterial, mycobacterial, or fungal cultures, and may be accompanied by elevated inflammatory markers or other systemic symptoms of the infection, setting it apart from pretibial myxedema.

Treatment is simple and noninvasive

Pretibial myxedema is usually asymptomatic, with minimal morbidity. The nodular variant may resolve spontaneously; thus, therapeutic management often is reserved for severe cases or for those with cosmetic concerns. Treatment options include mid- to high-potency topical corticosteroids with an occlusive dressing for 1 to 2 weeks (or until resolution) or an intra­lesional triamcinolone injection (5-10 mg/mL, single or monthly until resolution), compression stockings, and pneumatic compression.²

This patient was treated with a single intralesional injection of triamcinolone 10 mg/mL. The nodules resolved within a month.

A 34-YEAR-OLD MAN presented with a 6-month history of asymptomatic, progressively enlarging subcutaneous nodules over his bilateral lower legs. He denied any history of injury, and there was no bleeding or discharge. The patient had a history of Graves disease that had been treated with radio­iodine therapy 2 years prior, followed by thyroxine replacement (150 mcg/d, 5 d/wk and 125 mcg/d, 2 d/wk). At the time of presentation, his thyroid function tests indicated subclinical hypothyroidism: free T4, 21.2 pmol/L (normal range, 11.8-24.6 pmol/L) and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), 14.07 mIU/L (normal range, 0.27-4.2 mIU/L).

Examination revealed nontender, soft brown nodules over the bilateral shins, with minimal overlying lichenification (FIGURE 1). There was no peau d’orange (orange peel) appearance to suggest significant edema. A punch biopsy was performed.

WHAT IS YOUR DIAGNOSIS?
HOW WOULD YOU TREAT THIS PATIENT?

 

 

Diagnosis: Pretibial myxedema

The patient’s history, paired with the results of the punch biopsy, were consistent with a diagnosis of pretibial myxedema, part of the triad of Graves disease along with thyroid ophthalmopathy and acropachy (soft-tissue swelling of the hands and clubbing of the fingers). Histopathologic findings revealed wide separation of collagen bundles throughout the entire reticular dermis without fibroplasia (FIGURE 2A).­ The spaces contained basophilic strands ­(FIGURE 2B), and the strands stained strongly positive on Alcian blue (FIGURE 2C), confirming the presence of dermal mucin. Widely separated collagen fibers and deposited mucin are indicative of pretibial myxedema. No granulomas or lymphoid proliferations were seen.

The pathogenesis of pretibial myxedema is widely postulated to be due to the stimulation of dermal fibroblasts by anti–TSH antibodies, causing overproduction of glycosaminoglycans and hyaluronic acid¹ and obstructing lymphatic microcirculation, resulting in nonpitting edema.²

There are 5 distinct clinical variants of pretibial myxedema^1,3:

• The diffuse form is the most common. It manifests on the lower leg with hard, nonpitting edema and cutaneous thickening.
• The plaque form manifests on the lower leg as well-demarcated erythematous or pigmented flat-topped lesions.
• The nodular form, which our patient had, typically manifests on the lower leg as well-demarcated erythematous, pigmented, or skin-colored raised, solid lesions. There may be 1 lesion or several.
• The mixed form manifests as 2 or more of the other variants.
• The elephantiasic form is the rarest and the most severe. There are widespread swollen nodules and plaques on the lower legs and/or arms.

A rare, late manifestation

Although pathognomonic for Graves disease, pretibial myxedema is a late manifestation that occurs in less than 5% of these patients.⁴ The most common site of involvement is the pretibial region, although less common sites include the face, arms, shoulders, abdomen, pinna, and the location of previous scars.⁴

While pretibial myxedema usually is associated with hyperthyroidism, it can occur after treatment (as was the case here), while the patient is in a euthyroid or hypothyroid state. Radioiodine therapy has been reported to be a trigger for pretibial myxedema in 1 case report, although the pathophysiology is not fully understood.⁵

Continue to: More serious conditions must be ruled out

 

 

More serious conditions must be ruled out

The differential for painless nodules includes cutaneous lymphoma and atypical infections of fungal or mycobacterial etiology.

Cutaneous lymphoma that manifests with leg tumors includes primary cutaneous anaplastic CD30+ large cell lymphoma ­(PCALCL) and primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type ­(PCDLBL-LT). The former may occur in young patients, whereas the latter tends to manifest in the elderly. Biopsy shows a neoplastic proliferation of atypical lymphocytes within the dermis,⁶ differing from our case.

Atypical infections may be detected through bacterial, mycobacterial, or fungal cultures, and may be accompanied by elevated inflammatory markers or other systemic symptoms of the infection, setting it apart from pretibial myxedema.

Treatment is simple and noninvasive

Pretibial myxedema is usually asymptomatic, with minimal morbidity. The nodular variant may resolve spontaneously; thus, therapeutic management often is reserved for severe cases or for those with cosmetic concerns. Treatment options include mid- to high-potency topical corticosteroids with an occlusive dressing for 1 to 2 weeks (or until resolution) or an intra­lesional triamcinolone injection (5-10 mg/mL, single or monthly until resolution), compression stockings, and pneumatic compression.²

This patient was treated with a single intralesional injection of triamcinolone 10 mg/mL. The nodules resolved within a month.

ANAHEIM, CALIF. – Alpha-gal syndrome (AGS) is commonly described as an allergy to red meat, but that is “just the beginning,” allergist and immunologist Scott P. Commins, MD, PhD, told attendees at the annual meeting of the American College of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology (ACAAI) annual meeting.

Dr. Commins, associate chief for allergy and immunology at the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, has made alpha-gal, a potentially fatal allergy, which, in the United States is tied to the bite of the Lone Star tick, his primary research focus.

Beyond red meat, “there are some people who are allergic to all things mammal,” he explained. Dairy products from mammals, medical devices made from mammalian products, vaccines and medicines that contain gelatin, and even commercial products such as perfumes and cosmetics may be behind an AGS reaction.

“The derived products from pigs and cows really find their way into a lot of our day-to-day products,” he said. “I try to keep an open mind about these exposures.”

Physicians should also be aware that “this can happen to kids,” said Dr. Commins. “It looks very similar to adults’ [AGS]. They can end up in the emergency department.”

He also had clinical advice about food challenges for AGS. He explained that there’s more alpha-gal in beef than in other red meats (including pork, venison, and lamb) with the exception of pork kidney. Pork kidney, he said, “has the most alpha-gal that we can find in the lab.”

Dr. Commins said he has stopped using beef for AGS food challenges and has switched to pork sausage patties with a high fat content microwaved in the clinic because they have less alpha-gal in general and he views them as safer.

Long delay in symptom onset

AGS symptoms typically take 2-6 hours to appear after eating red meat or being exposed to mammalian products, but Dr. Commins related a story about a patient he sent home who had very mild symptoms (some lower back itching) after he had spent the day at the clinic after a pork sausage food challenge for AGS.

The patient had returned home. Eight hours after the food challenge, his wife sent Dr. Commins a picture of her husband’s back, which was riddled with welts and was itching badly.

“I learned that if you’re going to do these food challenges, if there is a hint of symptoms at the clinic at 6 hours, keep them in the clinic, because it may really take that long to evolve,” Dr. Commins said.

One of the early signs he’s discovered is palmar erythema (redness and swelling of the hands).

Research has shown that AGS has been heavily concentrated in the Southeast, where Lone Star tick populations are clustered, but research has shown that from 2017 to 2022, it moved up the East Coast to the central United States and Upper Midwest.

“We are seeing increasing diagnoses of AGS in places that are not, perhaps, where we first thought this allergy existed,” said Dr. Commins. “Stay aware,” he cautioned.

The allergy is not exclusive to the United States, he noted. In Europe and Australia, for example, AGS is not thought to be tied to the Lone Star tick, which doesn’t inhabit those regions.

“It is a global phenomenon,” Dr. Commins said.

In August, the CDC alerted physicians to emerging cases of alpha-gal allergy after an article in Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report indicated that health care providers have little knowledge about the allergy. Of the 1,500 health care providers surveyed, 42% had never heard of the syndrome, and another 35% were not confident in diagnosing or managing affected patients.

Matthew Lau, MD, an allergist with Kaiser Permanente in Honolulu who listened to Dr. Commins’ talk, told this news organization, “It’s important to raise awareness in primary care particularly, he said, as “allergists see only a fraction of the [AGS] patients.”

Allergists can help raise awareness

“Allergists have a role to alert the general community” and to drive more referrals, he said. That includes emergency departments, where physicians commonly see anaphylaxis.

Dr. Lau said he expects the incidence of AGS to increase, because global warming will likely lengthen warmer seasons and cause the geographic distribution to change.

Jay Lieberman, MD, a pediatric allergist at Le Bonheur Children’s Hospital in Memphis, Tenn., told this news organization, “There’s still a lot of confusion, and hearing from an expert like Dr. Commins helps tease out the not-obvious things about patients who are having more mild symptoms,” such as from allergy to dairy or medicines or vaccines that contain gelatin.

As a pediatric allergist, Dr. Lieberman said he sees less alpha-gal than his colleagues, but, he said, “On the adult side in Tennessee, it’s rampant.”

Dr. Commins, Dr. Lieberman, and Dr. Lau report no relevant financial relationships.
 

A version of this article appeared on Medscape.com.

ANAHEIM, CALIF. – Alpha-gal syndrome (AGS) is commonly described as an allergy to red meat, but that is “just the beginning,” allergist and immunologist Scott P. Commins, MD, PhD, told attendees at the annual meeting of the American College of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology (ACAAI) annual meeting.

Dr. Commins, associate chief for allergy and immunology at the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, has made alpha-gal, a potentially fatal allergy, which, in the United States is tied to the bite of the Lone Star tick, his primary research focus.

Beyond red meat, “there are some people who are allergic to all things mammal,” he explained. Dairy products from mammals, medical devices made from mammalian products, vaccines and medicines that contain gelatin, and even commercial products such as perfumes and cosmetics may be behind an AGS reaction.

“The derived products from pigs and cows really find their way into a lot of our day-to-day products,” he said. “I try to keep an open mind about these exposures.”

Physicians should also be aware that “this can happen to kids,” said Dr. Commins. “It looks very similar to adults’ [AGS]. They can end up in the emergency department.”

He also had clinical advice about food challenges for AGS. He explained that there’s more alpha-gal in beef than in other red meats (including pork, venison, and lamb) with the exception of pork kidney. Pork kidney, he said, “has the most alpha-gal that we can find in the lab.”

Dr. Commins said he has stopped using beef for AGS food challenges and has switched to pork sausage patties with a high fat content microwaved in the clinic because they have less alpha-gal in general and he views them as safer.

Long delay in symptom onset

AGS symptoms typically take 2-6 hours to appear after eating red meat or being exposed to mammalian products, but Dr. Commins related a story about a patient he sent home who had very mild symptoms (some lower back itching) after he had spent the day at the clinic after a pork sausage food challenge for AGS.

The patient had returned home. Eight hours after the food challenge, his wife sent Dr. Commins a picture of her husband’s back, which was riddled with welts and was itching badly.

“I learned that if you’re going to do these food challenges, if there is a hint of symptoms at the clinic at 6 hours, keep them in the clinic, because it may really take that long to evolve,” Dr. Commins said.

One of the early signs he’s discovered is palmar erythema (redness and swelling of the hands).

Research has shown that AGS has been heavily concentrated in the Southeast, where Lone Star tick populations are clustered, but research has shown that from 2017 to 2022, it moved up the East Coast to the central United States and Upper Midwest.

“We are seeing increasing diagnoses of AGS in places that are not, perhaps, where we first thought this allergy existed,” said Dr. Commins. “Stay aware,” he cautioned.

The allergy is not exclusive to the United States, he noted. In Europe and Australia, for example, AGS is not thought to be tied to the Lone Star tick, which doesn’t inhabit those regions.

“It is a global phenomenon,” Dr. Commins said.

In August, the CDC alerted physicians to emerging cases of alpha-gal allergy after an article in Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report indicated that health care providers have little knowledge about the allergy. Of the 1,500 health care providers surveyed, 42% had never heard of the syndrome, and another 35% were not confident in diagnosing or managing affected patients.

Matthew Lau, MD, an allergist with Kaiser Permanente in Honolulu who listened to Dr. Commins’ talk, told this news organization, “It’s important to raise awareness in primary care particularly, he said, as “allergists see only a fraction of the [AGS] patients.”

Allergists can help raise awareness

“Allergists have a role to alert the general community” and to drive more referrals, he said. That includes emergency departments, where physicians commonly see anaphylaxis.

Dr. Lau said he expects the incidence of AGS to increase, because global warming will likely lengthen warmer seasons and cause the geographic distribution to change.

Jay Lieberman, MD, a pediatric allergist at Le Bonheur Children’s Hospital in Memphis, Tenn., told this news organization, “There’s still a lot of confusion, and hearing from an expert like Dr. Commins helps tease out the not-obvious things about patients who are having more mild symptoms,” such as from allergy to dairy or medicines or vaccines that contain gelatin.

As a pediatric allergist, Dr. Lieberman said he sees less alpha-gal than his colleagues, but, he said, “On the adult side in Tennessee, it’s rampant.”

Dr. Commins, Dr. Lieberman, and Dr. Lau report no relevant financial relationships.
 

A version of this article appeared on Medscape.com.

ANAHEIM, CALIF. – Alpha-gal syndrome (AGS) is commonly described as an allergy to red meat, but that is “just the beginning,” allergist and immunologist Scott P. Commins, MD, PhD, told attendees at the annual meeting of the American College of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology (ACAAI) annual meeting.

Dr. Commins, associate chief for allergy and immunology at the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, has made alpha-gal, a potentially fatal allergy, which, in the United States is tied to the bite of the Lone Star tick, his primary research focus.

Beyond red meat, “there are some people who are allergic to all things mammal,” he explained. Dairy products from mammals, medical devices made from mammalian products, vaccines and medicines that contain gelatin, and even commercial products such as perfumes and cosmetics may be behind an AGS reaction.

“The derived products from pigs and cows really find their way into a lot of our day-to-day products,” he said. “I try to keep an open mind about these exposures.”

Physicians should also be aware that “this can happen to kids,” said Dr. Commins. “It looks very similar to adults’ [AGS]. They can end up in the emergency department.”

He also had clinical advice about food challenges for AGS. He explained that there’s more alpha-gal in beef than in other red meats (including pork, venison, and lamb) with the exception of pork kidney. Pork kidney, he said, “has the most alpha-gal that we can find in the lab.”

Dr. Commins said he has stopped using beef for AGS food challenges and has switched to pork sausage patties with a high fat content microwaved in the clinic because they have less alpha-gal in general and he views them as safer.

Long delay in symptom onset

AGS symptoms typically take 2-6 hours to appear after eating red meat or being exposed to mammalian products, but Dr. Commins related a story about a patient he sent home who had very mild symptoms (some lower back itching) after he had spent the day at the clinic after a pork sausage food challenge for AGS.

The patient had returned home. Eight hours after the food challenge, his wife sent Dr. Commins a picture of her husband’s back, which was riddled with welts and was itching badly.

“I learned that if you’re going to do these food challenges, if there is a hint of symptoms at the clinic at 6 hours, keep them in the clinic, because it may really take that long to evolve,” Dr. Commins said.

One of the early signs he’s discovered is palmar erythema (redness and swelling of the hands).

Research has shown that AGS has been heavily concentrated in the Southeast, where Lone Star tick populations are clustered, but research has shown that from 2017 to 2022, it moved up the East Coast to the central United States and Upper Midwest.

“We are seeing increasing diagnoses of AGS in places that are not, perhaps, where we first thought this allergy existed,” said Dr. Commins. “Stay aware,” he cautioned.

The allergy is not exclusive to the United States, he noted. In Europe and Australia, for example, AGS is not thought to be tied to the Lone Star tick, which doesn’t inhabit those regions.

“It is a global phenomenon,” Dr. Commins said.

In August, the CDC alerted physicians to emerging cases of alpha-gal allergy after an article in Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report indicated that health care providers have little knowledge about the allergy. Of the 1,500 health care providers surveyed, 42% had never heard of the syndrome, and another 35% were not confident in diagnosing or managing affected patients.

Matthew Lau, MD, an allergist with Kaiser Permanente in Honolulu who listened to Dr. Commins’ talk, told this news organization, “It’s important to raise awareness in primary care particularly, he said, as “allergists see only a fraction of the [AGS] patients.”

Allergists can help raise awareness

“Allergists have a role to alert the general community” and to drive more referrals, he said. That includes emergency departments, where physicians commonly see anaphylaxis.

Dr. Lau said he expects the incidence of AGS to increase, because global warming will likely lengthen warmer seasons and cause the geographic distribution to change.

Jay Lieberman, MD, a pediatric allergist at Le Bonheur Children’s Hospital in Memphis, Tenn., told this news organization, “There’s still a lot of confusion, and hearing from an expert like Dr. Commins helps tease out the not-obvious things about patients who are having more mild symptoms,” such as from allergy to dairy or medicines or vaccines that contain gelatin.

As a pediatric allergist, Dr. Lieberman said he sees less alpha-gal than his colleagues, but, he said, “On the adult side in Tennessee, it’s rampant.”

Dr. Commins, Dr. Lieberman, and Dr. Lau report no relevant financial relationships.
 

A version of this article appeared on Medscape.com.

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

A 9-year-old girl presents to your urgent care clinic after a fall while snowboarding for the first time. She reports falling forward onto her outstretched right hand and describes pain in her distal right forearm. She denies paresthesias, weakness, or lacerations. Physical examination reveals mild edema of the dorsal aspect of her distal right forearm and tenderness to palpation of the dorsal aspect of her distal radius. She denies tenderness to palpation of her ulna, anatomic snuffbox, hand, and elbow. Range of motion of the wrist is full on passive testing, but she declines active testing due to pain. Wrist radiographs reveal an uncomplicated torus fracture of the distal radius. Can immobilization with a soft bandage alone sufficiently treat this fracture?

Fractures of the distal radius are among the most common fractures of the upper extremity and commonly occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand.² In the pediatric population, torus fractures, also known as buckle fractures, are the most common type of distal radius fracture, comprising an estimated 50% of pediatric wrist fractures.^3,4 This is due to the presence of a physeal growth plate, thicker periosteum, and softer underlying bone in pediatric patients.^4,5 When an axial load is applied, as in a fall onto an outstretched hand, the force can lead to plastic deformation, with or without cortical disruption of the bone.^4,5

Pediatric torus fractures of the distal radius generally are treated with immobilization,² traditionally through a short arm cast or a removable, rigid wrist splint.^2,6 The wrist often is immobilized for 3 to 4 weeks, with routine follow-up and potential repeat plain film radiography to ensure stability.^2,6

Despite common use of immobilization, torus fractures of the distal radius are anatomically stable, and displacement is unlikely to occur.^7,8 As such, many studies have suggested that treatment of torus fractures with rigid immobilization in a cast or splint may not be necessary.^9,10 However, a 2018 Cochrane review concluded that the quality of evidence illustrating similar recovery between treatments was low, leaving uncertainty as to the most appropriate management strategy.⁶ Less casting and follow-up imaging could have positive implications for patient satisfaction, health care–associated costs, and radiation exposure.¹⁰

This study, the Forearm Fracture Recovery in Children Evaluation (FORCE) trial, compared the traditional treatment of distal radius torus fractures with rigid immobilization to soft immobilization and immediate discharge.

STUDY SUMMARY

Providing quality evidence for a standard of care

FORCE was a randomized controlled equivalence trial (N = 965) across 23 emergency departments (EDs) in the United Kingdom that compared pain and function in pediatric patients with distal radius torus fractures treated with a soft bandage and immediate discharge vs rigid immobilization and routine follow-up.¹ Patients included children ages 4 to 15 years presenting to the ED with a distal radius torus fracture, which was confirmed radiologically.

At 3 days, pain scores improved by 3.2 points in the soft bandage group and 3.1 points in the rigid immobilization group.

Patients with concomitant ipsilateral ulnar fractures were included in the study. Researchers excluded patients with injuries older than 36 hours, evidence of cortical disruption on radiograph (eg, greenstick fracture), or additional fractures other than the wrist, or those who were deemed unable to follow up with the full study protocol (eg, having insufficient English comprehension).

Continue to: Patients were randomly assigned...

Patients were randomly assigned in a 1:1 ratio to receive treatment with either a soft bandage such as a gauze roller bandage (n = 489) or rigid immobilization (n = 476). For patients in the bandage group, a soft bandage was applied in the ED or provided for home application without planned clinical follow-up. Patients in the rigid immobilization group were treated in the ED with either a removable manufactured splint or a molded splint or cast, followed by the standard follow-up practice of the treating center. Patients in the soft bandage group were advised not to wear the bandage for more than 3 weeks. Blinding was not possible, but the treatment team did not take part in patient follow-up.

The primary outcome was change in pain 3 days after treatment, measured on the Wong-Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale (an ordinal assessment using 6 illustrated facial expressions translated to a numeric rating on a scale of 0-10, with higher scores indicating worse pain). This scale has an established minimum clinically important difference (MCID) value of 1 face (2 points).¹¹ Per standard practice in equivalence trials, the equivalence margin was defined as half the MCID, with a value of 1.0 used in this study.

Secondary outcomes measured over the 6-week follow-up period included additional pain measurements using the Wong-Baker scale, measures of function and health-­related quality of life, analgesia use, days of absence from school or childcare, complication rates, and patient satisfaction. This study used modified intention-to-treat and per-protocol analyses.

The mean age of participants was 9.6 years; 39% were girls and 61% were boys. In the bandage group, 94% opted to have the soft bandage applied in the ED, and 95% of the rigid immobilization group were treated with a removable wrist splint in the ED. At 3 days, pain scores improved by 3.2 points (standard deviation [SD] = 2.1) in the soft bandage group and 3.1 points (SD = 2.1) in the rigid immobilization group. The adjusted difference was –0.1 (95% CI, –0.37 to 0.17) in the intention-to-treat analysis and –0.06 (95% CI, –0.34 to 0.21) in the per-protocol analysis, which were both less than the predetermined equivalence margin. This equivalence margin also was met at all secondary time points (1 day, 7 days, 3 weeks, and 6 weeks after treatment) and in subgroup analysis of those 4 to 7 years and 8 to 15 years.

Use of any analgesia in the prior 24 hours was slightly higher in the soft bandage group on Day 1 (83% vs 78%; P = .04) and Day 3 (57% vs 51%; P = .05), but this difference was not seen on Day 7. Satisfaction, measured via a 7-point Likert scale (range from “extremely satisfied” to “extremely unsatisfied”), was slightly lower in the soft bandage group on Day 1 (median 2 [interquartile range = 1, 2] vs median 1 [interquartile range = 1, 2]; P < .0001) but was not different after 6 weeks. There were no measured differences in any other secondary outcomes, including function, quality of life, and complication rates.

Continue to: By the primary end point...

De-escalation of treatment offers an equivalent, resource-sparing alternative to traditional treatment of pediatric torus fractures of the distal radius.

By the primary end point of 3 days, 36 patients (7%) in the soft bandage group returned to medical care requesting a change to rigid immobilization, compared with 1 patient (0.2%) in the rigid immobilization group declining intervention.

WHAT’S NEW

Equivalence in pain and function scores

This trial showed equivalence in pain at 3 days’ follow-up in children with distal radius torus fractures who were offered bandaging and then immediately discharged from the ED, compared with rigid immobilization and clinical follow-up. There were no significant differences in pain or function between groups during the 6 weeks following the initial injury. De-escalation of treatment offers an equivalent, resource-sparing alternative to traditional treatment of these fractures.

CAVEATS

Lack of masking likely introduced bias

There are no major caveats associated with managing distal radius torus fractures with a soft bandage and discharge from the ED, compared with the traditional treatment of rigid immobilization. However, bias was likely introduced in patient-reported outcomes due to the inability to mask patients and families to the treatment allocation. This may have led to overstating the severity of outcomes in the bandage group, given the strong preference for rigid immobilization, although equivalence was illustrated despite this potential bias.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Preferences may be difficult to change

Parents and clinicians demonstrated a preference for rigid immobilization, as shown in the imbalance in treatment crossovers, with 7% of children changing to the rigid immobilization group by the primary study end point of 3 days. The study authors hypothesized that crossovers may have been due to the perception by some parents that rigid immobilization is the gold standard of treatment, as well as clinicians’ seeking to escalate care for patients returning for follow-up. Policy and guideline changes, as well as physician efforts to educate patients on outcomes with soft bandage treatment, are likely to improve these misconceptions.

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

A 9-year-old girl presents to your urgent care clinic after a fall while snowboarding for the first time. She reports falling forward onto her outstretched right hand and describes pain in her distal right forearm. She denies paresthesias, weakness, or lacerations. Physical examination reveals mild edema of the dorsal aspect of her distal right forearm and tenderness to palpation of the dorsal aspect of her distal radius. She denies tenderness to palpation of her ulna, anatomic snuffbox, hand, and elbow. Range of motion of the wrist is full on passive testing, but she declines active testing due to pain. Wrist radiographs reveal an uncomplicated torus fracture of the distal radius. Can immobilization with a soft bandage alone sufficiently treat this fracture?

Fractures of the distal radius are among the most common fractures of the upper extremity and commonly occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand.² In the pediatric population, torus fractures, also known as buckle fractures, are the most common type of distal radius fracture, comprising an estimated 50% of pediatric wrist fractures.^3,4 This is due to the presence of a physeal growth plate, thicker periosteum, and softer underlying bone in pediatric patients.^4,5 When an axial load is applied, as in a fall onto an outstretched hand, the force can lead to plastic deformation, with or without cortical disruption of the bone.^4,5

Pediatric torus fractures of the distal radius generally are treated with immobilization,² traditionally through a short arm cast or a removable, rigid wrist splint.^2,6 The wrist often is immobilized for 3 to 4 weeks, with routine follow-up and potential repeat plain film radiography to ensure stability.^2,6

Despite common use of immobilization, torus fractures of the distal radius are anatomically stable, and displacement is unlikely to occur.^7,8 As such, many studies have suggested that treatment of torus fractures with rigid immobilization in a cast or splint may not be necessary.^9,10 However, a 2018 Cochrane review concluded that the quality of evidence illustrating similar recovery between treatments was low, leaving uncertainty as to the most appropriate management strategy.⁶ Less casting and follow-up imaging could have positive implications for patient satisfaction, health care–associated costs, and radiation exposure.¹⁰

This study, the Forearm Fracture Recovery in Children Evaluation (FORCE) trial, compared the traditional treatment of distal radius torus fractures with rigid immobilization to soft immobilization and immediate discharge.

STUDY SUMMARY

Providing quality evidence for a standard of care

FORCE was a randomized controlled equivalence trial (N = 965) across 23 emergency departments (EDs) in the United Kingdom that compared pain and function in pediatric patients with distal radius torus fractures treated with a soft bandage and immediate discharge vs rigid immobilization and routine follow-up.¹ Patients included children ages 4 to 15 years presenting to the ED with a distal radius torus fracture, which was confirmed radiologically.

At 3 days, pain scores improved by 3.2 points in the soft bandage group and 3.1 points in the rigid immobilization group.

Patients with concomitant ipsilateral ulnar fractures were included in the study. Researchers excluded patients with injuries older than 36 hours, evidence of cortical disruption on radiograph (eg, greenstick fracture), or additional fractures other than the wrist, or those who were deemed unable to follow up with the full study protocol (eg, having insufficient English comprehension).

Continue to: Patients were randomly assigned...

Patients were randomly assigned in a 1:1 ratio to receive treatment with either a soft bandage such as a gauze roller bandage (n = 489) or rigid immobilization (n = 476). For patients in the bandage group, a soft bandage was applied in the ED or provided for home application without planned clinical follow-up. Patients in the rigid immobilization group were treated in the ED with either a removable manufactured splint or a molded splint or cast, followed by the standard follow-up practice of the treating center. Patients in the soft bandage group were advised not to wear the bandage for more than 3 weeks. Blinding was not possible, but the treatment team did not take part in patient follow-up.

The primary outcome was change in pain 3 days after treatment, measured on the Wong-Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale (an ordinal assessment using 6 illustrated facial expressions translated to a numeric rating on a scale of 0-10, with higher scores indicating worse pain). This scale has an established minimum clinically important difference (MCID) value of 1 face (2 points).¹¹ Per standard practice in equivalence trials, the equivalence margin was defined as half the MCID, with a value of 1.0 used in this study.

Secondary outcomes measured over the 6-week follow-up period included additional pain measurements using the Wong-Baker scale, measures of function and health-­related quality of life, analgesia use, days of absence from school or childcare, complication rates, and patient satisfaction. This study used modified intention-to-treat and per-protocol analyses.

The mean age of participants was 9.6 years; 39% were girls and 61% were boys. In the bandage group, 94% opted to have the soft bandage applied in the ED, and 95% of the rigid immobilization group were treated with a removable wrist splint in the ED. At 3 days, pain scores improved by 3.2 points (standard deviation [SD] = 2.1) in the soft bandage group and 3.1 points (SD = 2.1) in the rigid immobilization group. The adjusted difference was –0.1 (95% CI, –0.37 to 0.17) in the intention-to-treat analysis and –0.06 (95% CI, –0.34 to 0.21) in the per-protocol analysis, which were both less than the predetermined equivalence margin. This equivalence margin also was met at all secondary time points (1 day, 7 days, 3 weeks, and 6 weeks after treatment) and in subgroup analysis of those 4 to 7 years and 8 to 15 years.

Use of any analgesia in the prior 24 hours was slightly higher in the soft bandage group on Day 1 (83% vs 78%; P = .04) and Day 3 (57% vs 51%; P = .05), but this difference was not seen on Day 7. Satisfaction, measured via a 7-point Likert scale (range from “extremely satisfied” to “extremely unsatisfied”), was slightly lower in the soft bandage group on Day 1 (median 2 [interquartile range = 1, 2] vs median 1 [interquartile range = 1, 2]; P < .0001) but was not different after 6 weeks. There were no measured differences in any other secondary outcomes, including function, quality of life, and complication rates.

Continue to: By the primary end point...

De-escalation of treatment offers an equivalent, resource-sparing alternative to traditional treatment of pediatric torus fractures of the distal radius.

By the primary end point of 3 days, 36 patients (7%) in the soft bandage group returned to medical care requesting a change to rigid immobilization, compared with 1 patient (0.2%) in the rigid immobilization group declining intervention.

WHAT’S NEW

Equivalence in pain and function scores

This trial showed equivalence in pain at 3 days’ follow-up in children with distal radius torus fractures who were offered bandaging and then immediately discharged from the ED, compared with rigid immobilization and clinical follow-up. There were no significant differences in pain or function between groups during the 6 weeks following the initial injury. De-escalation of treatment offers an equivalent, resource-sparing alternative to traditional treatment of these fractures.

CAVEATS

Lack of masking likely introduced bias

There are no major caveats associated with managing distal radius torus fractures with a soft bandage and discharge from the ED, compared with the traditional treatment of rigid immobilization. However, bias was likely introduced in patient-reported outcomes due to the inability to mask patients and families to the treatment allocation. This may have led to overstating the severity of outcomes in the bandage group, given the strong preference for rigid immobilization, although equivalence was illustrated despite this potential bias.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Preferences may be difficult to change

Parents and clinicians demonstrated a preference for rigid immobilization, as shown in the imbalance in treatment crossovers, with 7% of children changing to the rigid immobilization group by the primary study end point of 3 days. The study authors hypothesized that crossovers may have been due to the perception by some parents that rigid immobilization is the gold standard of treatment, as well as clinicians’ seeking to escalate care for patients returning for follow-up. Policy and guideline changes, as well as physician efforts to educate patients on outcomes with soft bandage treatment, are likely to improve these misconceptions.

ILLUSTRATIVE CASE

A 9-year-old girl presents to your urgent care clinic after a fall while snowboarding for the first time. She reports falling forward onto her outstretched right hand and describes pain in her distal right forearm. She denies paresthesias, weakness, or lacerations. Physical examination reveals mild edema of the dorsal aspect of her distal right forearm and tenderness to palpation of the dorsal aspect of her distal radius. She denies tenderness to palpation of her ulna, anatomic snuffbox, hand, and elbow. Range of motion of the wrist is full on passive testing, but she declines active testing due to pain. Wrist radiographs reveal an uncomplicated torus fracture of the distal radius. Can immobilization with a soft bandage alone sufficiently treat this fracture?

Fractures of the distal radius are among the most common fractures of the upper extremity and commonly occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand.² In the pediatric population, torus fractures, also known as buckle fractures, are the most common type of distal radius fracture, comprising an estimated 50% of pediatric wrist fractures.^3,4 This is due to the presence of a physeal growth plate, thicker periosteum, and softer underlying bone in pediatric patients.^4,5 When an axial load is applied, as in a fall onto an outstretched hand, the force can lead to plastic deformation, with or without cortical disruption of the bone.^4,5

Pediatric torus fractures of the distal radius generally are treated with immobilization,² traditionally through a short arm cast or a removable, rigid wrist splint.^2,6 The wrist often is immobilized for 3 to 4 weeks, with routine follow-up and potential repeat plain film radiography to ensure stability.^2,6

Despite common use of immobilization, torus fractures of the distal radius are anatomically stable, and displacement is unlikely to occur.^7,8 As such, many studies have suggested that treatment of torus fractures with rigid immobilization in a cast or splint may not be necessary.^9,10 However, a 2018 Cochrane review concluded that the quality of evidence illustrating similar recovery between treatments was low, leaving uncertainty as to the most appropriate management strategy.⁶ Less casting and follow-up imaging could have positive implications for patient satisfaction, health care–associated costs, and radiation exposure.¹⁰

This study, the Forearm Fracture Recovery in Children Evaluation (FORCE) trial, compared the traditional treatment of distal radius torus fractures with rigid immobilization to soft immobilization and immediate discharge.

STUDY SUMMARY

Providing quality evidence for a standard of care

FORCE was a randomized controlled equivalence trial (N = 965) across 23 emergency departments (EDs) in the United Kingdom that compared pain and function in pediatric patients with distal radius torus fractures treated with a soft bandage and immediate discharge vs rigid immobilization and routine follow-up.¹ Patients included children ages 4 to 15 years presenting to the ED with a distal radius torus fracture, which was confirmed radiologically.

At 3 days, pain scores improved by 3.2 points in the soft bandage group and 3.1 points in the rigid immobilization group.

Patients with concomitant ipsilateral ulnar fractures were included in the study. Researchers excluded patients with injuries older than 36 hours, evidence of cortical disruption on radiograph (eg, greenstick fracture), or additional fractures other than the wrist, or those who were deemed unable to follow up with the full study protocol (eg, having insufficient English comprehension).

Continue to: Patients were randomly assigned...

Patients were randomly assigned in a 1:1 ratio to receive treatment with either a soft bandage such as a gauze roller bandage (n = 489) or rigid immobilization (n = 476). For patients in the bandage group, a soft bandage was applied in the ED or provided for home application without planned clinical follow-up. Patients in the rigid immobilization group were treated in the ED with either a removable manufactured splint or a molded splint or cast, followed by the standard follow-up practice of the treating center. Patients in the soft bandage group were advised not to wear the bandage for more than 3 weeks. Blinding was not possible, but the treatment team did not take part in patient follow-up.

The primary outcome was change in pain 3 days after treatment, measured on the Wong-Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale (an ordinal assessment using 6 illustrated facial expressions translated to a numeric rating on a scale of 0-10, with higher scores indicating worse pain). This scale has an established minimum clinically important difference (MCID) value of 1 face (2 points).¹¹ Per standard practice in equivalence trials, the equivalence margin was defined as half the MCID, with a value of 1.0 used in this study.

Secondary outcomes measured over the 6-week follow-up period included additional pain measurements using the Wong-Baker scale, measures of function and health-­related quality of life, analgesia use, days of absence from school or childcare, complication rates, and patient satisfaction. This study used modified intention-to-treat and per-protocol analyses.

The mean age of participants was 9.6 years; 39% were girls and 61% were boys. In the bandage group, 94% opted to have the soft bandage applied in the ED, and 95% of the rigid immobilization group were treated with a removable wrist splint in the ED. At 3 days, pain scores improved by 3.2 points (standard deviation [SD] = 2.1) in the soft bandage group and 3.1 points (SD = 2.1) in the rigid immobilization group. The adjusted difference was –0.1 (95% CI, –0.37 to 0.17) in the intention-to-treat analysis and –0.06 (95% CI, –0.34 to 0.21) in the per-protocol analysis, which were both less than the predetermined equivalence margin. This equivalence margin also was met at all secondary time points (1 day, 7 days, 3 weeks, and 6 weeks after treatment) and in subgroup analysis of those 4 to 7 years and 8 to 15 years.

Use of any analgesia in the prior 24 hours was slightly higher in the soft bandage group on Day 1 (83% vs 78%; P = .04) and Day 3 (57% vs 51%; P = .05), but this difference was not seen on Day 7. Satisfaction, measured via a 7-point Likert scale (range from “extremely satisfied” to “extremely unsatisfied”), was slightly lower in the soft bandage group on Day 1 (median 2 [interquartile range = 1, 2] vs median 1 [interquartile range = 1, 2]; P < .0001) but was not different after 6 weeks. There were no measured differences in any other secondary outcomes, including function, quality of life, and complication rates.

Continue to: By the primary end point...

De-escalation of treatment offers an equivalent, resource-sparing alternative to traditional treatment of pediatric torus fractures of the distal radius.

By the primary end point of 3 days, 36 patients (7%) in the soft bandage group returned to medical care requesting a change to rigid immobilization, compared with 1 patient (0.2%) in the rigid immobilization group declining intervention.

WHAT’S NEW

Equivalence in pain and function scores

This trial showed equivalence in pain at 3 days’ follow-up in children with distal radius torus fractures who were offered bandaging and then immediately discharged from the ED, compared with rigid immobilization and clinical follow-up. There were no significant differences in pain or function between groups during the 6 weeks following the initial injury. De-escalation of treatment offers an equivalent, resource-sparing alternative to traditional treatment of these fractures.

CAVEATS

Lack of masking likely introduced bias

There are no major caveats associated with managing distal radius torus fractures with a soft bandage and discharge from the ED, compared with the traditional treatment of rigid immobilization. However, bias was likely introduced in patient-reported outcomes due to the inability to mask patients and families to the treatment allocation. This may have led to overstating the severity of outcomes in the bandage group, given the strong preference for rigid immobilization, although equivalence was illustrated despite this potential bias.

CHALLENGES TO IMPLEMENTATION

Preferences may be difficult to change

Parents and clinicians demonstrated a preference for rigid immobilization, as shown in the imbalance in treatment crossovers, with 7% of children changing to the rigid immobilization group by the primary study end point of 3 days. The study authors hypothesized that crossovers may have been due to the perception by some parents that rigid immobilization is the gold standard of treatment, as well as clinicians’ seeking to escalate care for patients returning for follow-up. Policy and guideline changes, as well as physician efforts to educate patients on outcomes with soft bandage treatment, are likely to improve these misconceptions.

Managing first-time seizures and epilepsy often requires consultation with a neurologist or epileptologist for diagnosis and subsequent management, including when medical treatment fails or in determining whether patients may benefit from surgery. However, given the high prevalence of epilepsy and even higher incidence of a single seizure, family physicians contribute significantly to the management of these patients. The main issues are managing a first-time seizure, making the diagnosis, establishing a treatment plan, and exploring triggers and mitigating factors.

Seizure vs epilepsy

All patients with epilepsy experience seizures, but not every person who experiences a seizure has (or will develop) epilepsy. Nearly 10% of the population has one seizure during their lifetime, whereas the risk for epilepsy is just 3%.¹ Therefore, a first-time seizure may not herald epilepsy, defined as repetitive (≥ 2) unprovoked seizures more than 24 hours apart.² Seizures can be provoked (acute symptomatic) or unprovoked; a clear distinction between these 2 occurrences—as well as between single and recurrent seizures—is critical for proper management. A close look at the circumstances of a first-time seizure is imperative to define the nature of the event and the possibility of further seizures before devising a treatment plan.

Provoked seizures are due to an acute brain insult such as toxic-metabolic disorders, concussion, alcohol withdrawal, an adverse effect of a medication or its withdrawal, or photic stimulation presumably by disrupting the brain’s metabolic homeostasis or integrity. The key factor is that provoked seizures always happen in close temporal association with an acute insult. A single provoked seizure happens each year in 29 to 39 individuals per 100,000.³ While these seizures typically occur singly, there is a small risk they may recur if the triggering insult persists or repeats.¹ Therefore, more than 1 seizure per se may not indicate epilepsy.³

Unprovoked seizures reflect an underlying brain dysfunction. A single unprovoked seizure happens in 23 to 61 individuals per 100,000 per year, often in men in either younger or older age groups.³ Unprovoked seizures may occur only once or may recur (ie, evolve into epilepsy). The latter scenario happens in only about half of cases; the overall risk for a recurrent seizure within 2 years of a first seizure is estimated at 42% (24% to 65%, depending on the etiology and electroencephalogram [EEG] findings).⁴ More specifically, without treatment the relapse rate will be 36% at 1 year and 47% at 2 years.⁴ Further, a second unprovoked seizure, if untreated, would increase the risk for third and fourth seizures to 73% and 76%, respectively, within 4 years.³

Evaluating the first-time seizure

Ask the patient or observers about the circumstances of the event to differentiate provoked from unprovoked onset. For one thing, not all “spells” are seizures. The differential diagnoses may include syncope, psychogenic nonepileptic events, drug intoxication or withdrawal, migraine, panic attacks, sleep disorders (parasomnia), transient global amnesia, concussion, and transient ischemic attack. EEG, neuroimaging, and other relevant diagnostic tests often are needed (eg, electrocardiogram/echocardiogram/Holter monitoring to evaluate for syncope/cardiac arrhythmia). Clinically, syncopal episodes tend to be brief with rapid recovery and no confusion, speech problems, aura, or lateralizing signs such as hand posturing or lip smacking that are typical with focal seizures. However, cases of convulsive syncope can be challenging to assess without diagnostic tests.

Many patients have experienced prior undiagnosed seizures. Subtle prior events include episodes of deja vu, transient feelings of fear, unusual smells, and speech difficulties.

True convulsive seizures do not have the variability in clinical signs seen with psychogenic nonepileptic events (eg, alternating body parts involved or direction of movements). Transient global amnesia is a rare condition with no established diagnostic test and is considered a diagnosis of exclusion, although bitemporal hyperintensities on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may appear 12 to 48 hours after the clinical episode.⁵ Blood work is needed in patients with medical issues treated with multiple medications to evaluate for metabolic derangements; otherwise, routine blood work provides minimal information in stable patients.

Region-specific causes. Neurocysticercosis is common in some regions, such as Latin America; therefore, attention should be paid to this aspect of patient history.

Continue to: Is it really a first-time seizure?

Is it really a first-time seizure? A “first,” usually dramatic, generalized tonic-clonic seizure that triggers the diagnostic work-up may not be the very first seizure. Evidence suggests that many patients have experienced prior undiagnosed seizures. Subtle prior events often missed include episodes of deja vu, transient feelings of fear or unusual smells, speech difficulties, staring spells, or myoclonic jerks.¹ A routine EEG to record epileptiform discharges and a high-resolution brain MRI to rule out any intracranial pathology are indicated. However, if the EEG indicates a primary generalized (as opposed to focal-onset) epilepsy, a brain MRI may not be needed. If a routine EEG is unrevealing, long-term video-EEG monitoring may be needed to detect an abnormality.

Accuracy of EEG and MRI. Following a first unprovoked seizure, routine EEG to detect epileptiform discharges in adults has yielded a sensitivity of 17.3% and specificity of 94.7%. In evaluating children, these values are 57.8% and 69.6%, respectively.⁶ If results are equivocal, a 24-hour EEG can increase the likelihood of detecting epileptiform discharges to 89% of patients.⁷ Brain MRI may detect an abnormality in 12% to 14% of patients with newly diagnosed epilepsy, and in up to 80% of those with recurrent seizures.⁸ In confirming hippocampus sclerosis, MRI has demonstrated a sensitivity of 93% and specificity of 86%.⁹

When to treat a first-time seizure. Available data and prediction models identify risk factors that would help determine whether to start an antiseizure medication after a first unprovoked seizure: abnormal EEG with particular epileptiform activity, abnormal neurologic exam, abnormal computerized tomography or MRI results, nocturnal seizure, focal seizure, or family history of seizures. In the absence of such risk factors, chances of further unprovoked seizures are not high enough to justify treatment with antiseizure medications. However, if a second unprovoked seizure were to occur, that would meet the definition of epilepsy, and treatment is indicated due to the high risk for further seizures.^10,11

Epilepsy diagnosis

The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) previously defined epilepsy as 2 unprovoked seizures more than 24 hours apart. However, a more recent ILAE task force modified this definition: even a single unprovoked seizure would be enough to diagnose epilepsy if there is high probability of further seizures—eg, in the presence of definitive epileptiform discharges on EEG or presence of a brain tumor or a remote brain insult on imaging, since such conditions induce an enduring predisposition to generate epileptic seizures. ² Also, a single unprovoked seizure is enough to diagnose epilepsy if it is part of an epileptic syndrome such as juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Further, a time limit was added to the definition—ie, epilepsy is considered resolved if a patient remains seizure free for 10 years without use of antiseizure medications during the past 5 years. However, given the multitude of variables and evidence, the task force acknowledged the need for individualized considerations. ²

Seizure classification

Classification of seizure type is based on the site of seizure onset and its spread pattern—ie, focal, generalized, or unknown onset.

Continue to: Focal-onset seizures

Focal-onset seizures originate “within networks limited to one hemisphere,” although possibly in more than 1 region (ie, multifocal, and presence or absence of loss of awareness). ¹² Focal seizures may then be further classified into “motor onset” or “nonmotor onset” (eg, autonomic, emotional, sensory). ²

Generalized seizures are those “originating at some point within, and rapidly engaging, bilaterally distributed networks.” ¹³ Unlike focal-onset seizures, generalized seizures are not classified based on awareness, as most generalized seizures involve loss of awareness (absence) or total loss of consciousness (generalized tonic-clonic). They are instead categorized based on the presence of motor vs nonmotor features (eg, tonic-clonic, myoclonic, atonic). Epilepsy classification is quite dynamic and constantly updated based on new genetic, electroencephalographic, and neuroimaging discoveries.

Treatment of epilepsy

Antiseizure medications

Treatment with antiseizure medications (ASMs; formerly known as antiepileptic drugs ) is the mainstay of epilepsy management. Achieving efficacy (seizure freedom) and tolerability (minimal adverse effects) are the primary goals of treatment. Factors that should govern the selection of an ASM include the seizure type/epilepsy syndrome, adverse effect profile of the ASM, pharmacodynamic/pharmacokinetic considerations, and patient comorbidities.

Levetiracetam and valproate (not to be used in women of childbearing potential) are considered appropriate first-line agents for generalized and unclassified epilepsies.

The Standard and New Antiepileptic Drugs (SANAD I and II) trials provide data from direct, unblinded, and longitudinal comparisons of existing and new ASMs and their utility in different seizure types. In the SANAD I cohort of patients with generalized and unclassified epilepsies, valproate was superior to lamotrigine and topiramate for 12-month remission and treatment failure rates, respectively.¹⁴ However, valproate generally is avoided in women of childbearing age due its potential adverse effects during pregnancy. In focal epilepsies, lamotrigine was superior to carbamazepine, gabapentin, and topiramate with respect to treatment failure, and noninferior to carbamazepine for 12-month remission.¹⁵ In the SANAD II trial, levetiracetam was noninferior to valproate for incidence of adverse events in patients with generalized and unclassified epilepsies although was found to be neither more clinically effective nor more cost effective.¹⁶ For patients of childbearing potential with generalized and unclassified epilepsies, there is evidence to support the safe and effective use of levetiracetam.¹⁷ In focal epilepsies, lamotrigine was superior to levetiracetam and zonisamide with respect to treatment failures and adverse events and was noninferior to zonisamide for 12-month remission.¹⁸ In summary, levetiracetam and valproate (not to be used in women of childbearing potential) are considered appropriate first-line agents for generalized and unclassified epilepsies while lamotrigine is deemed an appropriate first-line agent for focal epilepsies (TABLE 1^19-28).

Drug level monitoring. It is standard practice to periodically monitor serum levels in patients taking first-generation ASMs such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and valproic acid because of their narrow therapeutic range and the potential for overdose or interaction with other medications or foods (eg, grapefruit juice may increase carbamazepine serum level by inhibiting ­CYP3A4, the enzyme that metabolizes the drug). Patients taking newer ASMs may not require regular serum level monitoring except during titration, with hepatic or renal dosing, when concomitantly used with estrogen-based oral contraceptives (eg, lamotrigine), before or during pregnancy, or when nonadherence is suspected.

Continue to: Can antiseizure treatment be stopped?

Can antiseizure treatment be stopped?

Current evidence favors continuing ASM therapy in patients whose seizures are under control, although the decision should be tailored to an individual’s circumstances. According to the 2021 American Academy of Neurology (AAN) guidelines, adults who have been seizure free for at least 2 years and discontinue ASMs are possibly still at higher risk for seizure recurrence in the long term (24-60 months), compared with those who continue treatment.²⁹ On the other hand, for adults who have been seizure free for at least 12 months, ASM withdrawal may not increase their risk for status epilepticus, and there are insufficient data to support or refute an effect on mortality or quality of life with ASM withdrawal in this population. The decision to taper or maintain ASM therapy in seizure-free patients also should take into consideration other clinically relevant outcome measures such as the patient’s lifestyle and medication adverse effects. Therefore, this decision should be made after sufficient discussion with patients and their caregivers. (Information for patients can be found at: www.epilepsy.com/treatment/medicines/stopping-medication.)

There are no reliable methods for predicting seizure other than knowing of the several potential risks and recognizing and avoiding these triggers.

For children, the AAN guideline panel recommends discussing with family the small risk (2%) for becoming medication resistant if seizures recur during or after ASM withdrawal. ²⁹ For children who have been seizure free for 18 to 24 months, there is probably not a significant long-term (24-48 months) difference in seizure recurrence in those who taper ASMs vs those who do not. However, presence of epileptiform discharges on EEG before discontinuation of an ASM indicates increased risk for seizure recurrence. ²⁹

Intractable (refractory) epilepsy

While most patients with epilepsy attain complete seizure control with appropriate drug therapy, approximately 30% continue to experience seizures (“drug-resistant” epilepsy, also termed intractable or refractory ). ³⁰ In 2010, the ILAE defined drug-resistant epilepsy as “failure of adequate trials of two tolerated, appropriately chosen and used anti-epileptic drug schedules (whether as monotherapy or in combination) to achieve sustained seizure freedom” (defined as cessation of seizures for at least 3 times the longest pre-intervention inter-seizure interval or 12 months, whichever is longer). ^21,31 It should be noted that drug withdrawal due to adverse effects is not counted as failure of that ASM. Recognition of drug-resistant epilepsy may prompt referral to an epileptologist who can consider rational combination drug therapy or surgical resection of the seizure focus, vagus nerve stimulation, electrical stimulation of the seizure focus, or deep brain (thalamic) stimulation.

Seizure triggers and mitigating factors

Epilepsy mostly affects patients during seizure episodes; however, the unpredictability of these events adds significantly to the burden of disease. There are no reliable methods for predicting seizure other than knowing of the several potential risks and recognizing and avoiding these triggers.

Noncompliance with antiseizure medications is a common seizure trigger affecting up to one-half of patients with epilepsy.³²

Continue to: Medications

Medications may provoke seizures in susceptible individuals (TABLE 2^33-35).

Sleep deprivation is a potential seizure trigger in people with epilepsy based on observational studies, case reports, patient surveys, and EEG-based studies, although data from randomized controlled studies are limited.³⁶ The standard best practice is to encourage appropriate sleep hygiene, which involves getting at least 7 hours of sleep per night.³⁷

Alcohol is a GABAergic substance like benzodiazepines with antiseizure effects. However, it acts as a potential precipitant of seizures in cases of withdrawal or acute intoxication, or when it leads to sleep disruption or nonadherence to antiseizure medications. Therefore, advise patients with alcohol use disorder to slowly taper consumption (best done through a support program) and avoid sudden withdrawal. However, complete abstinence from alcohol use is not often recommended except in special circumstances (eg, a history of alcohol-related seizures). Several studies have demonstrated that modest alcohol use (1-2 drinks per occasion) does not increase seizure frequency or significantly alter serum concentrations of commonly used ASMs.³⁸

Cannabis and other substances. The 2 main biologically active components of marijuana are delta-9-tetrahydrocannibinol (THC), the main psychoactive constituent, and cannabidiol (CBD). Animal and human studies have demonstrated anticonvulsant properties of THC and CBD. But THC, in high amounts, can result in adverse cognitive effects and worsening seizures.³⁹ A purified 98% oil-based CBD extract (Epidiolex) has been approved as an adjunctive treatment for certain medically refractory epilepsy syndromes in children and young adults—ie, Dravet syndrome, Lennox-Gastaut syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis complex syndrome.⁴⁰ There are no reliable data on the effect of recreational use of marijuana on seizure control. Other illicit substances such as cocaine may lower seizure threshold by their stimulatory and disruptive effects on sleep, diet, and healthy routines.

Special clinical cases

Pregnancy and epilepsy

Despite the potential adverse effects of ASMs on fetal health, the current global consensus is to continue treatment during pregnancy, given that the potential harm of convulsive seizures outweighs the potential risks associated with in-utero exposure to ASMs. There is not enough evidence to indicate significant harm to the fetus caused by focal, absence, or myoclonic seizures. Low-dose folic acid is used to minimize the risks of ASMs during pregnancy.

Continue to: As the fetus develops...

Illicit substances such as cocaine may lower seizure threshold by their stimulatory and disruptive effects on sleep, diet, and healthy routines.

As the fetus develops, there are changes in volume of ASM distribution, renal clearance, protein binding, and hepatic metabolism, which require checking serum levels at regular intervals and making dosage adjustments.

The ongoing study evaluating Maternal Outcomes and Neurodevelopmental Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs (MONEAD)⁴¹ has led to multiple landmark studies guiding the choice of preferred ASMs during pregnancy in patients with epilepsy.^42,43 This has culminated in today’s use of lamotrigine and levetiracetam as the 2 preferred agents (while avoiding valproate) in pregnant patients with epilepsy.⁴⁴

Psychogenic nonepileptic seizures

Having epilepsy should not preclude patients from seeking employment and pursuing meaningful careers.

A form of conversion disorder, psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES) manifests as abnormal motor or behavioral events mimicking seizures but without associated epileptiform discharges on EEG. This is observed in 10% of patients seen in epilepsy clinics and even more often in those admitted to epilepsy­ monitoring units (25%-40%).⁴⁵ Diagnosis of PNES requires EEG monitoring both for confirmation and for discernment from true epileptic seizures, in particular frontal lobe epilepsy that may clinically mimic PNES. PNES often is associated with underlying psychological tensions or comorbid conditions such as depression, anxiety, or traumatic life experiences. There is no treatment for PNES per se, and its management is focused on controlling any underlying psychological comorbidities that may not always be obvious. There is some evidence suggesting that these patients experience an innate inability to verbally express their emotions and instead subconsciously resort to psychosomatics to express them in a somatic dimension.^46,47

Status epilepticus

Defined as prolonged seizures (> 5 min) or 2 consecutive seizures without regaining aware ness in between, status epilepticus (SE) is a potentially fatal condition. Subclinical nonconvulsive SE, especially in comatose patients, can be diagnosed only via EEG monitoring. Untreated SE may manifest as a diagnostic dilemma in unresponsive or critically ill patients and can increase the risk for mortality. ⁴⁸

Febrile seizures

Febrile seizures affect 2% to 5% of children most often in the second year of life.⁴⁹ The use of preventive antiseizure medication is not recommended; instead, the key is to investigate the underlying febrile illness. Lumbar puncture is indicated if there are signs and symptoms of meningitis (25% of children with bacterial meningitis present with seizures).⁴⁹ Febrile seizures often are self-limited, but there is risk for SE in up to 15% of cases.⁵⁰ If convulsive febrile seizures last longer than 5 minutes, initiate benzodiazepines followed by the standard protocol used for the management of SE.⁵¹

Continue to: Epilepsy as a spectrum disorder

 

 

Epilepsy as a spectrum disorder

The higher prevalence of comorbid cognitive and psychiatric conditions in patients with epilepsy, affecting about half of patients, ⁵² suggests that seizures may constitute only one aspect of a multifaceted disease that otherwise should be considered a spectrum disorder. Among such conditions are memory deficits, depression, and anxiety. Conversely, epilepsy is more common in patients with depression than in those without. ⁵²

Social impact of epilepsy

De-escalation of treatment offers an equivalent, resource-sparing alternative to traditional treatment of pediatric torus fractures of the distal radius.

Vehicle driving regulations. Patients with epilepsy are required to follow state law regarding driving restrictions. Different states have different rules and regulations about driving restrictions and reporting requirements (by patients or their physicians). Refer patients to the Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV) in their state of residence for up-to-date instructions.⁵³ The Epilepsy Foundation (epilepsy.com) can serve as a resource for each state’s DMV website.

Employment assistance. Having epilepsy should not preclude patients from seeking employment and pursuing meaningful careers. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) and the US Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) forbid discrimination against qualified people with disabilities, including those with epilepsy, and require reasonable accommodations in the workplace (www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/­epilepsy-workplace-and-ada).⁵⁴

CORRESPONDENCE
Gholam K. Motamedi, MD, Department of Neurology, PHC 7, Georgetown University Hospital, 3800 Reservoir Road, NW, Washington, DC 20007; motamedi@georgetown.edu

Managing first-time seizures and epilepsy often requires consultation with a neurologist or epileptologist for diagnosis and subsequent management, including when medical treatment fails or in determining whether patients may benefit from surgery. However, given the high prevalence of epilepsy and even higher incidence of a single seizure, family physicians contribute significantly to the management of these patients. The main issues are managing a first-time seizure, making the diagnosis, establishing a treatment plan, and exploring triggers and mitigating factors.

Seizure vs epilepsy

All patients with epilepsy experience seizures, but not every person who experiences a seizure has (or will develop) epilepsy. Nearly 10% of the population has one seizure during their lifetime, whereas the risk for epilepsy is just 3%.¹ Therefore, a first-time seizure may not herald epilepsy, defined as repetitive (≥ 2) unprovoked seizures more than 24 hours apart.² Seizures can be provoked (acute symptomatic) or unprovoked; a clear distinction between these 2 occurrences—as well as between single and recurrent seizures—is critical for proper management. A close look at the circumstances of a first-time seizure is imperative to define the nature of the event and the possibility of further seizures before devising a treatment plan.

Provoked seizures are due to an acute brain insult such as toxic-metabolic disorders, concussion, alcohol withdrawal, an adverse effect of a medication or its withdrawal, or photic stimulation presumably by disrupting the brain’s metabolic homeostasis or integrity. The key factor is that provoked seizures always happen in close temporal association with an acute insult. A single provoked seizure happens each year in 29 to 39 individuals per 100,000.³ While these seizures typically occur singly, there is a small risk they may recur if the triggering insult persists or repeats.¹ Therefore, more than 1 seizure per se may not indicate epilepsy.³

Unprovoked seizures reflect an underlying brain dysfunction. A single unprovoked seizure happens in 23 to 61 individuals per 100,000 per year, often in men in either younger or older age groups.³ Unprovoked seizures may occur only once or may recur (ie, evolve into epilepsy). The latter scenario happens in only about half of cases; the overall risk for a recurrent seizure within 2 years of a first seizure is estimated at 42% (24% to 65%, depending on the etiology and electroencephalogram [EEG] findings).⁴ More specifically, without treatment the relapse rate will be 36% at 1 year and 47% at 2 years.⁴ Further, a second unprovoked seizure, if untreated, would increase the risk for third and fourth seizures to 73% and 76%, respectively, within 4 years.³

Evaluating the first-time seizure

Ask the patient or observers about the circumstances of the event to differentiate provoked from unprovoked onset. For one thing, not all “spells” are seizures. The differential diagnoses may include syncope, psychogenic nonepileptic events, drug intoxication or withdrawal, migraine, panic attacks, sleep disorders (parasomnia), transient global amnesia, concussion, and transient ischemic attack. EEG, neuroimaging, and other relevant diagnostic tests often are needed (eg, electrocardiogram/echocardiogram/Holter monitoring to evaluate for syncope/cardiac arrhythmia). Clinically, syncopal episodes tend to be brief with rapid recovery and no confusion, speech problems, aura, or lateralizing signs such as hand posturing or lip smacking that are typical with focal seizures. However, cases of convulsive syncope can be challenging to assess without diagnostic tests.

Many patients have experienced prior undiagnosed seizures. Subtle prior events include episodes of deja vu, transient feelings of fear, unusual smells, and speech difficulties.

True convulsive seizures do not have the variability in clinical signs seen with psychogenic nonepileptic events (eg, alternating body parts involved or direction of movements). Transient global amnesia is a rare condition with no established diagnostic test and is considered a diagnosis of exclusion, although bitemporal hyperintensities on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may appear 12 to 48 hours after the clinical episode.⁵ Blood work is needed in patients with medical issues treated with multiple medications to evaluate for metabolic derangements; otherwise, routine blood work provides minimal information in stable patients.

Region-specific causes. Neurocysticercosis is common in some regions, such as Latin America; therefore, attention should be paid to this aspect of patient history.

Continue to: Is it really a first-time seizure?

Is it really a first-time seizure? A “first,” usually dramatic, generalized tonic-clonic seizure that triggers the diagnostic work-up may not be the very first seizure. Evidence suggests that many patients have experienced prior undiagnosed seizures. Subtle prior events often missed include episodes of deja vu, transient feelings of fear or unusual smells, speech difficulties, staring spells, or myoclonic jerks.¹ A routine EEG to record epileptiform discharges and a high-resolution brain MRI to rule out any intracranial pathology are indicated. However, if the EEG indicates a primary generalized (as opposed to focal-onset) epilepsy, a brain MRI may not be needed. If a routine EEG is unrevealing, long-term video-EEG monitoring may be needed to detect an abnormality.

Accuracy of EEG and MRI. Following a first unprovoked seizure, routine EEG to detect epileptiform discharges in adults has yielded a sensitivity of 17.3% and specificity of 94.7%. In evaluating children, these values are 57.8% and 69.6%, respectively.⁶ If results are equivocal, a 24-hour EEG can increase the likelihood of detecting epileptiform discharges to 89% of patients.⁷ Brain MRI may detect an abnormality in 12% to 14% of patients with newly diagnosed epilepsy, and in up to 80% of those with recurrent seizures.⁸ In confirming hippocampus sclerosis, MRI has demonstrated a sensitivity of 93% and specificity of 86%.⁹

When to treat a first-time seizure. Available data and prediction models identify risk factors that would help determine whether to start an antiseizure medication after a first unprovoked seizure: abnormal EEG with particular epileptiform activity, abnormal neurologic exam, abnormal computerized tomography or MRI results, nocturnal seizure, focal seizure, or family history of seizures. In the absence of such risk factors, chances of further unprovoked seizures are not high enough to justify treatment with antiseizure medications. However, if a second unprovoked seizure were to occur, that would meet the definition of epilepsy, and treatment is indicated due to the high risk for further seizures.^10,11

Epilepsy diagnosis

The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) previously defined epilepsy as 2 unprovoked seizures more than 24 hours apart. However, a more recent ILAE task force modified this definition: even a single unprovoked seizure would be enough to diagnose epilepsy if there is high probability of further seizures—eg, in the presence of definitive epileptiform discharges on EEG or presence of a brain tumor or a remote brain insult on imaging, since such conditions induce an enduring predisposition to generate epileptic seizures. ² Also, a single unprovoked seizure is enough to diagnose epilepsy if it is part of an epileptic syndrome such as juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Further, a time limit was added to the definition—ie, epilepsy is considered resolved if a patient remains seizure free for 10 years without use of antiseizure medications during the past 5 years. However, given the multitude of variables and evidence, the task force acknowledged the need for individualized considerations. ²

Seizure classification

Classification of seizure type is based on the site of seizure onset and its spread pattern—ie, focal, generalized, or unknown onset.

Continue to: Focal-onset seizures

Focal-onset seizures originate “within networks limited to one hemisphere,” although possibly in more than 1 region (ie, multifocal, and presence or absence of loss of awareness). ¹² Focal seizures may then be further classified into “motor onset” or “nonmotor onset” (eg, autonomic, emotional, sensory). ²

Generalized seizures are those “originating at some point within, and rapidly engaging, bilaterally distributed networks.” ¹³ Unlike focal-onset seizures, generalized seizures are not classified based on awareness, as most generalized seizures involve loss of awareness (absence) or total loss of consciousness (generalized tonic-clonic). They are instead categorized based on the presence of motor vs nonmotor features (eg, tonic-clonic, myoclonic, atonic). Epilepsy classification is quite dynamic and constantly updated based on new genetic, electroencephalographic, and neuroimaging discoveries.

Treatment of epilepsy

Antiseizure medications

Treatment with antiseizure medications (ASMs; formerly known as antiepileptic drugs ) is the mainstay of epilepsy management. Achieving efficacy (seizure freedom) and tolerability (minimal adverse effects) are the primary goals of treatment. Factors that should govern the selection of an ASM include the seizure type/epilepsy syndrome, adverse effect profile of the ASM, pharmacodynamic/pharmacokinetic considerations, and patient comorbidities.

Levetiracetam and valproate (not to be used in women of childbearing potential) are considered appropriate first-line agents for generalized and unclassified epilepsies.

The Standard and New Antiepileptic Drugs (SANAD I and II) trials provide data from direct, unblinded, and longitudinal comparisons of existing and new ASMs and their utility in different seizure types. In the SANAD I cohort of patients with generalized and unclassified epilepsies, valproate was superior to lamotrigine and topiramate for 12-month remission and treatment failure rates, respectively.¹⁴ However, valproate generally is avoided in women of childbearing age due its potential adverse effects during pregnancy. In focal epilepsies, lamotrigine was superior to carbamazepine, gabapentin, and topiramate with respect to treatment failure, and noninferior to carbamazepine for 12-month remission.¹⁵ In the SANAD II trial, levetiracetam was noninferior to valproate for incidence of adverse events in patients with generalized and unclassified epilepsies although was found to be neither more clinically effective nor more cost effective.¹⁶ For patients of childbearing potential with generalized and unclassified epilepsies, there is evidence to support the safe and effective use of levetiracetam.¹⁷ In focal epilepsies, lamotrigine was superior to levetiracetam and zonisamide with respect to treatment failures and adverse events and was noninferior to zonisamide for 12-month remission.¹⁸ In summary, levetiracetam and valproate (not to be used in women of childbearing potential) are considered appropriate first-line agents for generalized and unclassified epilepsies while lamotrigine is deemed an appropriate first-line agent for focal epilepsies (TABLE 1^19-28).

Drug level monitoring. It is standard practice to periodically monitor serum levels in patients taking first-generation ASMs such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and valproic acid because of their narrow therapeutic range and the potential for overdose or interaction with other medications or foods (eg, grapefruit juice may increase carbamazepine serum level by inhibiting ­CYP3A4, the enzyme that metabolizes the drug). Patients taking newer ASMs may not require regular serum level monitoring except during titration, with hepatic or renal dosing, when concomitantly used with estrogen-based oral contraceptives (eg, lamotrigine), before or during pregnancy, or when nonadherence is suspected.

Continue to: Can antiseizure treatment be stopped?

Can antiseizure treatment be stopped?

Current evidence favors continuing ASM therapy in patients whose seizures are under control, although the decision should be tailored to an individual’s circumstances. According to the 2021 American Academy of Neurology (AAN) guidelines, adults who have been seizure free for at least 2 years and discontinue ASMs are possibly still at higher risk for seizure recurrence in the long term (24-60 months), compared with those who continue treatment.²⁹ On the other hand, for adults who have been seizure free for at least 12 months, ASM withdrawal may not increase their risk for status epilepticus, and there are insufficient data to support or refute an effect on mortality or quality of life with ASM withdrawal in this population. The decision to taper or maintain ASM therapy in seizure-free patients also should take into consideration other clinically relevant outcome measures such as the patient’s lifestyle and medication adverse effects. Therefore, this decision should be made after sufficient discussion with patients and their caregivers. (Information for patients can be found at: www.epilepsy.com/treatment/medicines/stopping-medication.)

There are no reliable methods for predicting seizure other than knowing of the several potential risks and recognizing and avoiding these triggers.

For children, the AAN guideline panel recommends discussing with family the small risk (2%) for becoming medication resistant if seizures recur during or after ASM withdrawal. ²⁹ For children who have been seizure free for 18 to 24 months, there is probably not a significant long-term (24-48 months) difference in seizure recurrence in those who taper ASMs vs those who do not. However, presence of epileptiform discharges on EEG before discontinuation of an ASM indicates increased risk for seizure recurrence. ²⁹

Intractable (refractory) epilepsy

While most patients with epilepsy attain complete seizure control with appropriate drug therapy, approximately 30% continue to experience seizures (“drug-resistant” epilepsy, also termed intractable or refractory ). ³⁰ In 2010, the ILAE defined drug-resistant epilepsy as “failure of adequate trials of two tolerated, appropriately chosen and used anti-epileptic drug schedules (whether as monotherapy or in combination) to achieve sustained seizure freedom” (defined as cessation of seizures for at least 3 times the longest pre-intervention inter-seizure interval or 12 months, whichever is longer). ^21,31 It should be noted that drug withdrawal due to adverse effects is not counted as failure of that ASM. Recognition of drug-resistant epilepsy may prompt referral to an epileptologist who can consider rational combination drug therapy or surgical resection of the seizure focus, vagus nerve stimulation, electrical stimulation of the seizure focus, or deep brain (thalamic) stimulation.

Seizure triggers and mitigating factors

Epilepsy mostly affects patients during seizure episodes; however, the unpredictability of these events adds significantly to the burden of disease. There are no reliable methods for predicting seizure other than knowing of the several potential risks and recognizing and avoiding these triggers.

Noncompliance with antiseizure medications is a common seizure trigger affecting up to one-half of patients with epilepsy.³²

Continue to: Medications

Medications may provoke seizures in susceptible individuals (TABLE 2^33-35).

Sleep deprivation is a potential seizure trigger in people with epilepsy based on observational studies, case reports, patient surveys, and EEG-based studies, although data from randomized controlled studies are limited.³⁶ The standard best practice is to encourage appropriate sleep hygiene, which involves getting at least 7 hours of sleep per night.³⁷

Alcohol is a GABAergic substance like benzodiazepines with antiseizure effects. However, it acts as a potential precipitant of seizures in cases of withdrawal or acute intoxication, or when it leads to sleep disruption or nonadherence to antiseizure medications. Therefore, advise patients with alcohol use disorder to slowly taper consumption (best done through a support program) and avoid sudden withdrawal. However, complete abstinence from alcohol use is not often recommended except in special circumstances (eg, a history of alcohol-related seizures). Several studies have demonstrated that modest alcohol use (1-2 drinks per occasion) does not increase seizure frequency or significantly alter serum concentrations of commonly used ASMs.³⁸

Cannabis and other substances. The 2 main biologically active components of marijuana are delta-9-tetrahydrocannibinol (THC), the main psychoactive constituent, and cannabidiol (CBD). Animal and human studies have demonstrated anticonvulsant properties of THC and CBD. But THC, in high amounts, can result in adverse cognitive effects and worsening seizures.³⁹ A purified 98% oil-based CBD extract (Epidiolex) has been approved as an adjunctive treatment for certain medically refractory epilepsy syndromes in children and young adults—ie, Dravet syndrome, Lennox-Gastaut syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis complex syndrome.⁴⁰ There are no reliable data on the effect of recreational use of marijuana on seizure control. Other illicit substances such as cocaine may lower seizure threshold by their stimulatory and disruptive effects on sleep, diet, and healthy routines.

Special clinical cases

Pregnancy and epilepsy

Despite the potential adverse effects of ASMs on fetal health, the current global consensus is to continue treatment during pregnancy, given that the potential harm of convulsive seizures outweighs the potential risks associated with in-utero exposure to ASMs. There is not enough evidence to indicate significant harm to the fetus caused by focal, absence, or myoclonic seizures. Low-dose folic acid is used to minimize the risks of ASMs during pregnancy.

Continue to: As the fetus develops...

Illicit substances such as cocaine may lower seizure threshold by their stimulatory and disruptive effects on sleep, diet, and healthy routines.

As the fetus develops, there are changes in volume of ASM distribution, renal clearance, protein binding, and hepatic metabolism, which require checking serum levels at regular intervals and making dosage adjustments.

The ongoing study evaluating Maternal Outcomes and Neurodevelopmental Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs (MONEAD)⁴¹ has led to multiple landmark studies guiding the choice of preferred ASMs during pregnancy in patients with epilepsy.^42,43 This has culminated in today’s use of lamotrigine and levetiracetam as the 2 preferred agents (while avoiding valproate) in pregnant patients with epilepsy.⁴⁴

Psychogenic nonepileptic seizures

Having epilepsy should not preclude patients from seeking employment and pursuing meaningful careers.

A form of conversion disorder, psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES) manifests as abnormal motor or behavioral events mimicking seizures but without associated epileptiform discharges on EEG. This is observed in 10% of patients seen in epilepsy clinics and even more often in those admitted to epilepsy­ monitoring units (25%-40%).⁴⁵ Diagnosis of PNES requires EEG monitoring both for confirmation and for discernment from true epileptic seizures, in particular frontal lobe epilepsy that may clinically mimic PNES. PNES often is associated with underlying psychological tensions or comorbid conditions such as depression, anxiety, or traumatic life experiences. There is no treatment for PNES per se, and its management is focused on controlling any underlying psychological comorbidities that may not always be obvious. There is some evidence suggesting that these patients experience an innate inability to verbally express their emotions and instead subconsciously resort to psychosomatics to express them in a somatic dimension.^46,47

Status epilepticus

Defined as prolonged seizures (> 5 min) or 2 consecutive seizures without regaining aware ness in between, status epilepticus (SE) is a potentially fatal condition. Subclinical nonconvulsive SE, especially in comatose patients, can be diagnosed only via EEG monitoring. Untreated SE may manifest as a diagnostic dilemma in unresponsive or critically ill patients and can increase the risk for mortality. ⁴⁸

Febrile seizures

Febrile seizures affect 2% to 5% of children most often in the second year of life.⁴⁹ The use of preventive antiseizure medication is not recommended; instead, the key is to investigate the underlying febrile illness. Lumbar puncture is indicated if there are signs and symptoms of meningitis (25% of children with bacterial meningitis present with seizures).⁴⁹ Febrile seizures often are self-limited, but there is risk for SE in up to 15% of cases.⁵⁰ If convulsive febrile seizures last longer than 5 minutes, initiate benzodiazepines followed by the standard protocol used for the management of SE.⁵¹

Continue to: Epilepsy as a spectrum disorder

 

 

Epilepsy as a spectrum disorder

The higher prevalence of comorbid cognitive and psychiatric conditions in patients with epilepsy, affecting about half of patients, ⁵² suggests that seizures may constitute only one aspect of a multifaceted disease that otherwise should be considered a spectrum disorder. Among such conditions are memory deficits, depression, and anxiety. Conversely, epilepsy is more common in patients with depression than in those without. ⁵²

Social impact of epilepsy

De-escalation of treatment offers an equivalent, resource-sparing alternative to traditional treatment of pediatric torus fractures of the distal radius.

Vehicle driving regulations. Patients with epilepsy are required to follow state law regarding driving restrictions. Different states have different rules and regulations about driving restrictions and reporting requirements (by patients or their physicians). Refer patients to the Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV) in their state of residence for up-to-date instructions.⁵³ The Epilepsy Foundation (epilepsy.com) can serve as a resource for each state’s DMV website.

Employment assistance. Having epilepsy should not preclude patients from seeking employment and pursuing meaningful careers. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) and the US Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) forbid discrimination against qualified people with disabilities, including those with epilepsy, and require reasonable accommodations in the workplace (www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/­epilepsy-workplace-and-ada).⁵⁴

CORRESPONDENCE
Gholam K. Motamedi, MD, Department of Neurology, PHC 7, Georgetown University Hospital, 3800 Reservoir Road, NW, Washington, DC 20007; motamedi@georgetown.edu

Managing first-time seizures and epilepsy often requires consultation with a neurologist or epileptologist for diagnosis and subsequent management, including when medical treatment fails or in determining whether patients may benefit from surgery. However, given the high prevalence of epilepsy and even higher incidence of a single seizure, family physicians contribute significantly to the management of these patients. The main issues are managing a first-time seizure, making the diagnosis, establishing a treatment plan, and exploring triggers and mitigating factors.

Seizure vs epilepsy

All patients with epilepsy experience seizures, but not every person who experiences a seizure has (or will develop) epilepsy. Nearly 10% of the population has one seizure during their lifetime, whereas the risk for epilepsy is just 3%.¹ Therefore, a first-time seizure may not herald epilepsy, defined as repetitive (≥ 2) unprovoked seizures more than 24 hours apart.² Seizures can be provoked (acute symptomatic) or unprovoked; a clear distinction between these 2 occurrences—as well as between single and recurrent seizures—is critical for proper management. A close look at the circumstances of a first-time seizure is imperative to define the nature of the event and the possibility of further seizures before devising a treatment plan.

Provoked seizures are due to an acute brain insult such as toxic-metabolic disorders, concussion, alcohol withdrawal, an adverse effect of a medication or its withdrawal, or photic stimulation presumably by disrupting the brain’s metabolic homeostasis or integrity. The key factor is that provoked seizures always happen in close temporal association with an acute insult. A single provoked seizure happens each year in 29 to 39 individuals per 100,000.³ While these seizures typically occur singly, there is a small risk they may recur if the triggering insult persists or repeats.¹ Therefore, more than 1 seizure per se may not indicate epilepsy.³

Unprovoked seizures reflect an underlying brain dysfunction. A single unprovoked seizure happens in 23 to 61 individuals per 100,000 per year, often in men in either younger or older age groups.³ Unprovoked seizures may occur only once or may recur (ie, evolve into epilepsy). The latter scenario happens in only about half of cases; the overall risk for a recurrent seizure within 2 years of a first seizure is estimated at 42% (24% to 65%, depending on the etiology and electroencephalogram [EEG] findings).⁴ More specifically, without treatment the relapse rate will be 36% at 1 year and 47% at 2 years.⁴ Further, a second unprovoked seizure, if untreated, would increase the risk for third and fourth seizures to 73% and 76%, respectively, within 4 years.³

Evaluating the first-time seizure

Ask the patient or observers about the circumstances of the event to differentiate provoked from unprovoked onset. For one thing, not all “spells” are seizures. The differential diagnoses may include syncope, psychogenic nonepileptic events, drug intoxication or withdrawal, migraine, panic attacks, sleep disorders (parasomnia), transient global amnesia, concussion, and transient ischemic attack. EEG, neuroimaging, and other relevant diagnostic tests often are needed (eg, electrocardiogram/echocardiogram/Holter monitoring to evaluate for syncope/cardiac arrhythmia). Clinically, syncopal episodes tend to be brief with rapid recovery and no confusion, speech problems, aura, or lateralizing signs such as hand posturing or lip smacking that are typical with focal seizures. However, cases of convulsive syncope can be challenging to assess without diagnostic tests.

Many patients have experienced prior undiagnosed seizures. Subtle prior events include episodes of deja vu, transient feelings of fear, unusual smells, and speech difficulties.

True convulsive seizures do not have the variability in clinical signs seen with psychogenic nonepileptic events (eg, alternating body parts involved or direction of movements). Transient global amnesia is a rare condition with no established diagnostic test and is considered a diagnosis of exclusion, although bitemporal hyperintensities on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may appear 12 to 48 hours after the clinical episode.⁵ Blood work is needed in patients with medical issues treated with multiple medications to evaluate for metabolic derangements; otherwise, routine blood work provides minimal information in stable patients.

Region-specific causes. Neurocysticercosis is common in some regions, such as Latin America; therefore, attention should be paid to this aspect of patient history.

Continue to: Is it really a first-time seizure?

Is it really a first-time seizure? A “first,” usually dramatic, generalized tonic-clonic seizure that triggers the diagnostic work-up may not be the very first seizure. Evidence suggests that many patients have experienced prior undiagnosed seizures. Subtle prior events often missed include episodes of deja vu, transient feelings of fear or unusual smells, speech difficulties, staring spells, or myoclonic jerks.¹ A routine EEG to record epileptiform discharges and a high-resolution brain MRI to rule out any intracranial pathology are indicated. However, if the EEG indicates a primary generalized (as opposed to focal-onset) epilepsy, a brain MRI may not be needed. If a routine EEG is unrevealing, long-term video-EEG monitoring may be needed to detect an abnormality.

Accuracy of EEG and MRI. Following a first unprovoked seizure, routine EEG to detect epileptiform discharges in adults has yielded a sensitivity of 17.3% and specificity of 94.7%. In evaluating children, these values are 57.8% and 69.6%, respectively.⁶ If results are equivocal, a 24-hour EEG can increase the likelihood of detecting epileptiform discharges to 89% of patients.⁷ Brain MRI may detect an abnormality in 12% to 14% of patients with newly diagnosed epilepsy, and in up to 80% of those with recurrent seizures.⁸ In confirming hippocampus sclerosis, MRI has demonstrated a sensitivity of 93% and specificity of 86%.⁹

When to treat a first-time seizure. Available data and prediction models identify risk factors that would help determine whether to start an antiseizure medication after a first unprovoked seizure: abnormal EEG with particular epileptiform activity, abnormal neurologic exam, abnormal computerized tomography or MRI results, nocturnal seizure, focal seizure, or family history of seizures. In the absence of such risk factors, chances of further unprovoked seizures are not high enough to justify treatment with antiseizure medications. However, if a second unprovoked seizure were to occur, that would meet the definition of epilepsy, and treatment is indicated due to the high risk for further seizures.^10,11

Epilepsy diagnosis

The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) previously defined epilepsy as 2 unprovoked seizures more than 24 hours apart. However, a more recent ILAE task force modified this definition: even a single unprovoked seizure would be enough to diagnose epilepsy if there is high probability of further seizures—eg, in the presence of definitive epileptiform discharges on EEG or presence of a brain tumor or a remote brain insult on imaging, since such conditions induce an enduring predisposition to generate epileptic seizures. ² Also, a single unprovoked seizure is enough to diagnose epilepsy if it is part of an epileptic syndrome such as juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Further, a time limit was added to the definition—ie, epilepsy is considered resolved if a patient remains seizure free for 10 years without use of antiseizure medications during the past 5 years. However, given the multitude of variables and evidence, the task force acknowledged the need for individualized considerations. ²

Seizure classification

Classification of seizure type is based on the site of seizure onset and its spread pattern—ie, focal, generalized, or unknown onset.

Continue to: Focal-onset seizures

Focal-onset seizures originate “within networks limited to one hemisphere,” although possibly in more than 1 region (ie, multifocal, and presence or absence of loss of awareness). ¹² Focal seizures may then be further classified into “motor onset” or “nonmotor onset” (eg, autonomic, emotional, sensory). ²

Generalized seizures are those “originating at some point within, and rapidly engaging, bilaterally distributed networks.” ¹³ Unlike focal-onset seizures, generalized seizures are not classified based on awareness, as most generalized seizures involve loss of awareness (absence) or total loss of consciousness (generalized tonic-clonic). They are instead categorized based on the presence of motor vs nonmotor features (eg, tonic-clonic, myoclonic, atonic). Epilepsy classification is quite dynamic and constantly updated based on new genetic, electroencephalographic, and neuroimaging discoveries.

Treatment of epilepsy

Antiseizure medications

Treatment with antiseizure medications (ASMs; formerly known as antiepileptic drugs ) is the mainstay of epilepsy management. Achieving efficacy (seizure freedom) and tolerability (minimal adverse effects) are the primary goals of treatment. Factors that should govern the selection of an ASM include the seizure type/epilepsy syndrome, adverse effect profile of the ASM, pharmacodynamic/pharmacokinetic considerations, and patient comorbidities.

Levetiracetam and valproate (not to be used in women of childbearing potential) are considered appropriate first-line agents for generalized and unclassified epilepsies.

The Standard and New Antiepileptic Drugs (SANAD I and II) trials provide data from direct, unblinded, and longitudinal comparisons of existing and new ASMs and their utility in different seizure types. In the SANAD I cohort of patients with generalized and unclassified epilepsies, valproate was superior to lamotrigine and topiramate for 12-month remission and treatment failure rates, respectively.¹⁴ However, valproate generally is avoided in women of childbearing age due its potential adverse effects during pregnancy. In focal epilepsies, lamotrigine was superior to carbamazepine, gabapentin, and topiramate with respect to treatment failure, and noninferior to carbamazepine for 12-month remission.¹⁵ In the SANAD II trial, levetiracetam was noninferior to valproate for incidence of adverse events in patients with generalized and unclassified epilepsies although was found to be neither more clinically effective nor more cost effective.¹⁶ For patients of childbearing potential with generalized and unclassified epilepsies, there is evidence to support the safe and effective use of levetiracetam.¹⁷ In focal epilepsies, lamotrigine was superior to levetiracetam and zonisamide with respect to treatment failures and adverse events and was noninferior to zonisamide for 12-month remission.¹⁸ In summary, levetiracetam and valproate (not to be used in women of childbearing potential) are considered appropriate first-line agents for generalized and unclassified epilepsies while lamotrigine is deemed an appropriate first-line agent for focal epilepsies (TABLE 1^19-28).

Drug level monitoring. It is standard practice to periodically monitor serum levels in patients taking first-generation ASMs such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and valproic acid because of their narrow therapeutic range and the potential for overdose or interaction with other medications or foods (eg, grapefruit juice may increase carbamazepine serum level by inhibiting ­CYP3A4, the enzyme that metabolizes the drug). Patients taking newer ASMs may not require regular serum level monitoring except during titration, with hepatic or renal dosing, when concomitantly used with estrogen-based oral contraceptives (eg, lamotrigine), before or during pregnancy, or when nonadherence is suspected.

Continue to: Can antiseizure treatment be stopped?

Can antiseizure treatment be stopped?

Current evidence favors continuing ASM therapy in patients whose seizures are under control, although the decision should be tailored to an individual’s circumstances. According to the 2021 American Academy of Neurology (AAN) guidelines, adults who have been seizure free for at least 2 years and discontinue ASMs are possibly still at higher risk for seizure recurrence in the long term (24-60 months), compared with those who continue treatment.²⁹ On the other hand, for adults who have been seizure free for at least 12 months, ASM withdrawal may not increase their risk for status epilepticus, and there are insufficient data to support or refute an effect on mortality or quality of life with ASM withdrawal in this population. The decision to taper or maintain ASM therapy in seizure-free patients also should take into consideration other clinically relevant outcome measures such as the patient’s lifestyle and medication adverse effects. Therefore, this decision should be made after sufficient discussion with patients and their caregivers. (Information for patients can be found at: www.epilepsy.com/treatment/medicines/stopping-medication.)

There are no reliable methods for predicting seizure other than knowing of the several potential risks and recognizing and avoiding these triggers.

For children, the AAN guideline panel recommends discussing with family the small risk (2%) for becoming medication resistant if seizures recur during or after ASM withdrawal. ²⁹ For children who have been seizure free for 18 to 24 months, there is probably not a significant long-term (24-48 months) difference in seizure recurrence in those who taper ASMs vs those who do not. However, presence of epileptiform discharges on EEG before discontinuation of an ASM indicates increased risk for seizure recurrence. ²⁹

Intractable (refractory) epilepsy

While most patients with epilepsy attain complete seizure control with appropriate drug therapy, approximately 30% continue to experience seizures (“drug-resistant” epilepsy, also termed intractable or refractory ). ³⁰ In 2010, the ILAE defined drug-resistant epilepsy as “failure of adequate trials of two tolerated, appropriately chosen and used anti-epileptic drug schedules (whether as monotherapy or in combination) to achieve sustained seizure freedom” (defined as cessation of seizures for at least 3 times the longest pre-intervention inter-seizure interval or 12 months, whichever is longer). ^21,31 It should be noted that drug withdrawal due to adverse effects is not counted as failure of that ASM. Recognition of drug-resistant epilepsy may prompt referral to an epileptologist who can consider rational combination drug therapy or surgical resection of the seizure focus, vagus nerve stimulation, electrical stimulation of the seizure focus, or deep brain (thalamic) stimulation.

Seizure triggers and mitigating factors

Epilepsy mostly affects patients during seizure episodes; however, the unpredictability of these events adds significantly to the burden of disease. There are no reliable methods for predicting seizure other than knowing of the several potential risks and recognizing and avoiding these triggers.

Noncompliance with antiseizure medications is a common seizure trigger affecting up to one-half of patients with epilepsy.³²

Continue to: Medications

Medications may provoke seizures in susceptible individuals (TABLE 2^33-35).

Sleep deprivation is a potential seizure trigger in people with epilepsy based on observational studies, case reports, patient surveys, and EEG-based studies, although data from randomized controlled studies are limited.³⁶ The standard best practice is to encourage appropriate sleep hygiene, which involves getting at least 7 hours of sleep per night.³⁷

Alcohol is a GABAergic substance like benzodiazepines with antiseizure effects. However, it acts as a potential precipitant of seizures in cases of withdrawal or acute intoxication, or when it leads to sleep disruption or nonadherence to antiseizure medications. Therefore, advise patients with alcohol use disorder to slowly taper consumption (best done through a support program) and avoid sudden withdrawal. However, complete abstinence from alcohol use is not often recommended except in special circumstances (eg, a history of alcohol-related seizures). Several studies have demonstrated that modest alcohol use (1-2 drinks per occasion) does not increase seizure frequency or significantly alter serum concentrations of commonly used ASMs.³⁸

Cannabis and other substances. The 2 main biologically active components of marijuana are delta-9-tetrahydrocannibinol (THC), the main psychoactive constituent, and cannabidiol (CBD). Animal and human studies have demonstrated anticonvulsant properties of THC and CBD. But THC, in high amounts, can result in adverse cognitive effects and worsening seizures.³⁹ A purified 98% oil-based CBD extract (Epidiolex) has been approved as an adjunctive treatment for certain medically refractory epilepsy syndromes in children and young adults—ie, Dravet syndrome, Lennox-Gastaut syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis complex syndrome.⁴⁰ There are no reliable data on the effect of recreational use of marijuana on seizure control. Other illicit substances such as cocaine may lower seizure threshold by their stimulatory and disruptive effects on sleep, diet, and healthy routines.

Special clinical cases

Pregnancy and epilepsy

Despite the potential adverse effects of ASMs on fetal health, the current global consensus is to continue treatment during pregnancy, given that the potential harm of convulsive seizures outweighs the potential risks associated with in-utero exposure to ASMs. There is not enough evidence to indicate significant harm to the fetus caused by focal, absence, or myoclonic seizures. Low-dose folic acid is used to minimize the risks of ASMs during pregnancy.

Continue to: As the fetus develops...

Illicit substances such as cocaine may lower seizure threshold by their stimulatory and disruptive effects on sleep, diet, and healthy routines.

As the fetus develops, there are changes in volume of ASM distribution, renal clearance, protein binding, and hepatic metabolism, which require checking serum levels at regular intervals and making dosage adjustments.

The ongoing study evaluating Maternal Outcomes and Neurodevelopmental Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs (MONEAD)⁴¹ has led to multiple landmark studies guiding the choice of preferred ASMs during pregnancy in patients with epilepsy.^42,43 This has culminated in today’s use of lamotrigine and levetiracetam as the 2 preferred agents (while avoiding valproate) in pregnant patients with epilepsy.⁴⁴

Psychogenic nonepileptic seizures

Having epilepsy should not preclude patients from seeking employment and pursuing meaningful careers.

A form of conversion disorder, psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES) manifests as abnormal motor or behavioral events mimicking seizures but without associated epileptiform discharges on EEG. This is observed in 10% of patients seen in epilepsy clinics and even more often in those admitted to epilepsy­ monitoring units (25%-40%).⁴⁵ Diagnosis of PNES requires EEG monitoring both for confirmation and for discernment from true epileptic seizures, in particular frontal lobe epilepsy that may clinically mimic PNES. PNES often is associated with underlying psychological tensions or comorbid conditions such as depression, anxiety, or traumatic life experiences. There is no treatment for PNES per se, and its management is focused on controlling any underlying psychological comorbidities that may not always be obvious. There is some evidence suggesting that these patients experience an innate inability to verbally express their emotions and instead subconsciously resort to psychosomatics to express them in a somatic dimension.^46,47

Status epilepticus

Defined as prolonged seizures (> 5 min) or 2 consecutive seizures without regaining aware ness in between, status epilepticus (SE) is a potentially fatal condition. Subclinical nonconvulsive SE, especially in comatose patients, can be diagnosed only via EEG monitoring. Untreated SE may manifest as a diagnostic dilemma in unresponsive or critically ill patients and can increase the risk for mortality. ⁴⁸

Febrile seizures

Febrile seizures affect 2% to 5% of children most often in the second year of life.⁴⁹ The use of preventive antiseizure medication is not recommended; instead, the key is to investigate the underlying febrile illness. Lumbar puncture is indicated if there are signs and symptoms of meningitis (25% of children with bacterial meningitis present with seizures).⁴⁹ Febrile seizures often are self-limited, but there is risk for SE in up to 15% of cases.⁵⁰ If convulsive febrile seizures last longer than 5 minutes, initiate benzodiazepines followed by the standard protocol used for the management of SE.⁵¹

Continue to: Epilepsy as a spectrum disorder

 

 

Epilepsy as a spectrum disorder

The higher prevalence of comorbid cognitive and psychiatric conditions in patients with epilepsy, affecting about half of patients, ⁵² suggests that seizures may constitute only one aspect of a multifaceted disease that otherwise should be considered a spectrum disorder. Among such conditions are memory deficits, depression, and anxiety. Conversely, epilepsy is more common in patients with depression than in those without. ⁵²

Social impact of epilepsy

De-escalation of treatment offers an equivalent, resource-sparing alternative to traditional treatment of pediatric torus fractures of the distal radius.

Vehicle driving regulations. Patients with epilepsy are required to follow state law regarding driving restrictions. Different states have different rules and regulations about driving restrictions and reporting requirements (by patients or their physicians). Refer patients to the Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV) in their state of residence for up-to-date instructions.⁵³ The Epilepsy Foundation (epilepsy.com) can serve as a resource for each state’s DMV website.

Employment assistance. Having epilepsy should not preclude patients from seeking employment and pursuing meaningful careers. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) and the US Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) forbid discrimination against qualified people with disabilities, including those with epilepsy, and require reasonable accommodations in the workplace (www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/­epilepsy-workplace-and-ada).⁵⁴

CORRESPONDENCE
Gholam K. Motamedi, MD, Department of Neurology, PHC 7, Georgetown University Hospital, 3800 Reservoir Road, NW, Washington, DC 20007; motamedi@georgetown.edu